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Oregon Bulletin

October 1, 2012

Department of Public Safety Standards and Training, Chapter 259

Rule Caption: Update DOC BCC program/hours to correspond with DPSST course; Clarify documentation requirements.

Adm. Order No.: DPSST 17-2012

Filed with Sec. of State: 8-24-2012

Certified to be Effective: 8-24-12

Notice Publication Date: 8-1-2012

Rules Amended: 259-008-0025

Rules Repealed: 259-008-0025(T)

Subject: In January 2012 Department of Public Safety Standards and Training (DPSST) began delivering the new six-week basic corrections program, which is now the state standard for basic corrections training. The new program represents a substantial restructuring of basic corrections training, both with areas of additional instruction and with a significant increase in participatory learning activities. Specifically, 51 hours of reality based scenarios and eight hours of problem-based learning exercises were added to the program.

 This rule update increases the overall minimum course hours for the Department of Correction’s Basic Corrections Course to correspond with the new DPSST course and outlines the required program restructuring to reflect those updates. The update also clarifies the documentation required for purposes of determining equivalency of the overall program structure and of training delivery.

Rules Coordinator: Linsay Hale—(503) 378-2431

259-008-0025

Minimum Standards for Training

(1) Basic Course:

(a) Except as provided in OAR 259-008-0035, all law enforcement officers, telecommunicators, and emergency medical dispatchers must satisfactorily complete the prescribed Basic Course, including the field training portion. The Basic Course and field training portion must be completed within twelve months from the date of employment by corrections officers and within 18 months by police officers, parole and probation officers, telecommunicators, and emergency medical dispatchers.

(b) The field training program shall be conducted under the supervision of the employing department. When the field training manual is properly completed, the sign-off pages of the field training manual must be forwarded to the Department. Upon the approval of the Department, the employee shall receive credit toward basic certification.

(c) Effective July 1, 2007, all police officers must satisfactorily complete the Department’s physical fitness standard. The Department’s physical standard is:

(A) Successful completion of the OR-PAT at 5:30 (five minutes and thirty seconds) when tested upon entry at the Basic Police Course; or

(B) Successful completion of the OR-PAT at 5:30 (five minutes and thirty seconds) when tested prior to graduation from the Basic Police Course.

(d) Law enforcement officers who have previously completed the Basic Course, but have not been employed as a law enforcement officer as defined in ORS 181.610 and OAR 259-008-0005 during the last five (5) years or more, must satisfactorily complete the full required Basic Course to qualify for certification. This requirement may be waived by the Department upon a finding that the applicant has current knowledge and skills to perform as an officer.

(e) Telecommunicators and emergency medical dispatchers who have previously completed the Basic Course, but have not been employed as a telecommunicator or EMD, as described in ORS 181.610 and OAR 259-008-0005 for two and one-half (2-1/2) years or more, must satisfactorily complete the full required Basic Course to qualify for certification. This requirement may be waived by the Department upon finding that a Telecommunicator has current knowledge and skills to perform as a Telecommunicator. There is no waiver available for an emergency medical dispatcher.

(f) Previously employed telecommunicators may challenge the Basic Telecommunications Course based on the following criteria:

(A) The department head of the applicant’s employing agency shall submit the “challenge request” within the time limits set forth in the Oregon Revised Statutes and Oregon Administrative Rules.

(B) The applicant must provide proof of successful completion of prior equivalent training.

(C) The applicant must provide documentation of the course content with hour and subject breakdown.

(D) The applicant must obtain a minimum passing score on all written examinations for the course.

(E) The applicant must demonstrate performance at the minimum acceptable level for the course.

(F) Failure of written examination or demonstrated performance shall require attendance of the course challenged.

(G) The applicant will only be given one opportunity to challenge a course.

(g) Previously employed police officers, corrections officers and parole and probation officers who are required to attend the Basic Course may not challenge the Basic Course.

(h) All law enforcement officers who have previously completed the Basic Course, but have not been employed as a law enforcement officer as described in ORS 181.610 and OAR 259-008-0005 over two and one-half (2-1/2) years but less than five (5) years must complete a Career Officer Development Course if returning to the same discipline. This requirement may be waived after a staff determination that the applicant has demonstrated the knowledge and skills required for satisfactory completion of a Career Officer Development Course.

(i) Corrections and police officers who have not completed the Basic Course must begin training within 90 days of their initial date of employment.

(A) A police officer must begin training at an academy operated by the Department.

(B) A corrections officer who is employed by Oregon Department of Corrections (DOC) during the period July 1, 2009 through January 1, 2014 must begin DOC Basic Corrections Course (DOC BCC) training provided by DOC as described in section (6) of this rule.

(C) A corrections officer who is not employed by DOC must begin training at an academy operated by the Department.

(D) A 30-day extension of this time period shall be granted by the Board or its designee upon receipt of a written statement of the reasons for the delay from the officer’s employer. Any delays caused by the inability of the Department to provide basic training for any reason, shall not be counted as part of the periods set forth above (refer to ORS 181.665 and 181.652).

(j) Law enforcement officers who have previously completed a basic training course out of state while employed by a law enforcement unit, or public or private safety agency, may, upon proper documentation of such training and with approval of the Department, satisfy the requirements of this section by successfully completing a prescribed Career Officer Development Course or other appropriate course of instruction.

(k) The basic course for police officers must include:

(A) Training on the law, theory, policies and practices related to vehicle pursuit driving;

(B) Vehicle pursuit training exercises, subject to the availability of funding; and

(C) A minimum of 24 hours of training in the recognition of mental illnesses utilizing a crisis intervention training model. A minimum of one hour of this training must be on the appropriate use of the medical health database maintained by the Department of State Police within the Law Enforcement Data System.

(2) Career Officer Development Course:

(a) All law enforcement officers who have not been employed as such for between two and one half (2-1/2) years and five (5) years, must satisfactorily complete a Career Officer Development Course approved by the Department.

(b) A law enforcement officer assigned to a Career Officer Development Course must also complete the Board’s field training program under the supervision of the employing department and submit to the Department a properly completed Field Training Manual. The Department may waive the Field Training Manual requirement upon demonstration by the employing agency that it is not necessary [refer to OAR 259-008-0025(1)(b)].

(A) A law enforcement officer who fails to achieve a minimum passing test score after completing a Career Officer Development Course will be given one opportunity to remediate through self-study and re-test within 60 days of the initial date of failure.

(B) A law enforcement officer who fails to achieve a minimum passing test score after re-testing will have been determined to have failed academically and will be required to attend the next available Basic Course.

(C) A law enforcement officer who is scheduled to complete a distance learning COD Course must achieve a minimum passing test score within the timeframe set by the Department. Failure to successfully complete a distance COD Course within the timeframe set by the Department will require an officer to attend the next available COD Course.

(c) The Department may also require successful completion of additional specified courses or remedial training.

(3) Supervision Course. All law enforcement officers, telecommunicators, and emergency medical dispatchers promoted, appointed, or transferred to a first-level supervisory position must satisfactorily complete Supervision training that complies with the requirements outlined in DPSST Form F-21. The required training must be completed within 12 months after initial promotion, appointment, or transfer to such position. This section applies whether the individual is promoted or transferred to a supervisory position within a department, or is appointed from an outside department, without having completed the required Supervision training within the preceding five (5) years.

(4) Middle Management Course. All law enforcement officers, telecommunicators, and emergency medical dispatchers promoted, appointed, or transferred to a middle management position must satisfactorily complete Middle Management training that complies with the requirements outlined in DPSST Form F-22. The required training must be completed within 12 months after initial promotion, appointment, or transfer to such position. This section applies whether the individual is promoted or transferred to a middle management position within a department, or is appointed to the position from an outside department without having completed the required Middle Management training within the preceding five (5) years.

(5) Specialized Courses.

(a) Specialized courses are optional and may be presented at the Academy or regionally. The curriculum is generally selected because of relevancy to current trends and needs in police, corrections, parole and probation, telecommunications, and emergency medical dispatch fields, at the local or statewide level.

(b) Specialized courses may be developed and presented by individual departments of the criminal justice system, local training districts, a college, the Department, or other interested persons. Department staff may be available to provide assistance when resources are not available in the local region.

(c) Police officers, including certified reserve officers, must be trained on how to investigate and report cases of missing children and adults.

(A) The above mandated training is subject to the availability of funds.

(B) Federal training programs must be offered to police officers, including certified reserve officers, when they are made available at no cost to the state.

(6) The DOC Basic Corrections Course.

Course Requirements

(a) Except as provided in OAR 259-008-0035, all corrections officers hired by the Oregon Department of Corrections (DOC) on or after July 1, 2009, but prior to January 1, 2014, must satisfactorily complete the DOC Basic Corrections Course (DOC BCC), including the field training portion. All corrections officers must complete the DOC BCC and field training portion must be completed within twelve months from the date of employment.

(b) Prior to attending a DOC BCC, a corrections officer hired by DOC on or after July 1, 2009, but prior to January 1, 2014, must:

(A) Meet the minimum standards for employment as a law enforcement officer contained in OAR 259-008-0010;

(B) Meet the background investigation requirements for a law enforcement officer contained in OAR 259-008-0015; and

(C) Meet the minimum standards for training contained in this section.

(c) The DOC BCC must conform to the content and standard approved by the Board. The DOC BCC must include, but is not limited to:

(A) Minimum training standards for the basic certification of corrections officer employed by DOC. The minimum training developed by DOC must be adopted by the Board and must meet or exceed the minimum training standards for the basic certification of corrections officers employed by a law enforcement unit other than DOC.

(B) Minimum Course Hours. The minimum course hours are 240. DOC BCC Course hours refer to hours of training related to DPSST Instructional Goals and may include classroom, scenarios, skills sheets or other related training methodology

(i) The DOC BCC must include hours addressing all Instructional Goals within each of the following sections:

(I) Section A — 20 hours in Legal Considerations;

(II) Section B — 37 hours in Security Procedures;

(III) Section C — 43 hours in Inmate Supervision;

(IV) Section D — 16 hours in Inmate Health Care;

(V) Section E — 16 hours in Professional Skills;

(VI) Section F — 27 hours in Personal Fitness;

(VII) Section G — 41 hours in Defensive Tactics; and

(VIII) Section H — 26 hours in Skills — Firearms.

(ii) Administrative time is not included within the hours identified in subsection (i). Administrative time may be up to 6% of the overall course hours, or a maximum of 14 hours.

(iii) A minimum of 80% of the classes in the DOC BCC must include:

(I) Participatory learning activities which include, but are not limited to, scenario training, hands-on training and problem-based learning; and

(II) Sufficient hours to address the Instructional Goals in subsection (i).

(C) Attendance Standards. Attendance rosters must be kept and copies of these rosters must be submitted to the Department at the conclusion of a student’s training, or when requested by the Department. To successfully complete the DOC BCC, a student may not miss more than 10% of the DOC BCC.

(D) Notwithstanding (C) above, successful completion of the DOC BCC requires 100% attendance during classes in which the following Instructional Goals are covered:

(i) B1.2 Instruction and practice applying safe and efficient tactics for inmate monitoring, inmate counts and facility perimeter checks;

(ii) B2.2 Instruction and practice conducting appropriate, safe and systematic searches of inmates and correctional facilities;

(iii) B5.2 Instruction and practice restraining individuals in an appropriate, safe and systematic manner;

(iv) B8 Reality based scenarios that enhance a new corrections professional’s understanding and application of security procedures in a correctional facility;

(v) C3.2 Instruction and practice using interpersonal skills to effectively communicate with inmates and other persons in a correctional setting;

(vi) C10 Reality-based scenarios that enhance a new corrections professional’s understanding and application of inmate supervision strategies within a correctional facility;

(vii) D3.2 Instruction and practice applying appropriate intervention strategies for dealing with inmates with major mental illnesses;

(viii) G1 Decision-making skills related to the use of reasonable force to effectively overcome and control resistive and/or hostile behavior;

(ix) G2 Instruction and practice using reasonable force tactics to effectively overcome and control resistive and/or hostile behavior;

(x) G3 Reality-based scenarios that enhance a new corrections professional’s understanding and application of reasonable force decision-making and tactics within a correctional facility.;

(xi) H1 Basic gun-handling skills; and

(xii) H2 Basic understanding of the use, limitations and techniques of a service handgun, and proficiency in safety, proper gun-handling, marksmanship and firearms tactics.

(E) Conduct. An individual attending a DOC BCC is expected to uphold the minimum moral fitness standards for Oregon public safety officers during their training. DOC will document the date, type, and disposition of any student misconduct relating to the minimum standards for correctional officers. These include, but are not limited to, the following Zero Tolerance Offenses:

(i) Any unlawful act;

(ii) Dishonesty, lying or attempting to conceal violations;

(iii) Cheating;

(iv) Harassment; or

(v) Alcohol possession or use at the training venue.

(F) Course Curriculum.

(i) The DOC BCC will be based on the critical and essential job tasks identified in the most current Job Task Analysis for corrections officers provided to DOC by the Department.

(ii) The DOC BCC will incorporate the most current Instructional Goals provided to DOC by the Department.

(iii) The DOC BCC will incorporate curriculum updates provided to DOC by the Department, when those updates address the critical and essential job tasks or Instructional Goals referenced above.

Testing Requirements

(G) Academic Testing. Academic testing will consist of written test questions that are valid, create reasonable academic rigor, and require students to demonstrate knowledge and application of the essential tasks identified within the DOC BCC curriculum. DOC must administer examinations and maintain a file of examinations conducted.

(i) Academic Testing Passing Score. Except as provided below, to successfully complete the DOC BCC, students must achieve a minimum score of 75% on each academic test. If a student does not attain a 75% score, and DOC retains the student as an employee in a certifiable position, DOC must remediate the student. After remediation, a student will be allowed one opportunity to re-test and achieve a minimum score of 75%.

(ii) Students must attain a score of 100% on all academic test questions on Use of Force topics. If a student fails to attain a 100% score on Use of Force topics, and DOC retains the student as an employee in a certifiable position, DOC must remediate the student. Remediation must include the student completing the DPSST Use of Force Remediation form to demonstrate understanding of each topic missed.

(H) Skills Testing. Skills testing will consist of evaluations documented by use of Skills Sheets during which students must demonstrate competence and achieve a “pass” score in each skill tested.

(I) Test Security and Integrity.

(i) DOC must develop and strictly enforce measures to ensure the security of test questions and integrity of all testing processes.

(ii) DOC must randomize the order of test questions and must develop a sufficient bank of test questions to ensure that students who fail to achieve a passing score and are remediated are given a randomized test that includes some questions that are different than those in the test the student originally failed.

Instructor Requirements

(J) Instructor Qualifications.

(i) All instructors for the DOC BCC must meet or exceed the Instructor Certification standards for instructors at DPSST Basic courses and must be currently certified by the Department in the categories instructed.

(ii) DOC must verify that an instructor providing instruction within a category has the requisite subject matter knowledge, skills and abilities.

(K) The equivalency of the DOC BCC is subject to approval by the Board and verified by ongoing audits.

(L) DOC BCC documentation must include, but is not limited to:

(i) Training schedules, to include all training related to DOC BCC hours, such as classroom, skills sheets, online training and scenarios;

(ii) Classes with associated Instructional Goals and related hours;

(iii) Participatory learning activities within each class;

(iv) Testing Measures for each class; and

(v) Attendance rosters.

(M) DOC BCC Class Training Schedule documentation for each DOC BCC must include, but is not limited to:

(i) Notification of all anticipated DOC BCC training dates to include DOC BCC remediation training;

(ii) Times of DOC BCC training;

(iii) Locations of DOC BCC training; and

(iv) Instructors scheduled to provide training.

(N) Ongoing DOC BCC student documentation during each DOC BCC must include, but is not limited to:

(i) A list of students scheduled to attend training;

(ii) Student names, DPSST numbers, dates of employment and employing institutions;

(iii) Identification of any class or skill failure requiring remediation to including, but not limited to, the date and location of failure, date and location of remediation, the instructor who had oversight over remediation, and the result of remediation.

Certification Requirements

(O) Officer Certification. The applicant must meet the minimum standards for certification as a corrections officer contained in OAR 259-008-0060. DOC must submit the following documents at the time Basic certification is requested:

(i) F-7 (Application for Certification);

(ii) F-6 (Course Roster) for DOC BCC including the number of hours and the final cumulative score;

(iii) F-6 (Course Roster) for DOC Advanced Corrections Course with attached itemized list of classes attended;

(iv) Proof of current First Aid/CPR;

(v) F-11 (Criminal Justice Code of Ethics); and

(vi) FTO Manual Completion Report.

(P) Course Certification. Each DOC BCC class must be certified before officers who complete that BCC may be certified. The following Class Notebook requirements are needed prior to course certification:

(i) F-6 DPSST Class Roster, listing all students who began the course, passed or failed the course, and those who did not complete the course.

(ii) Curriculum for all components of the BCC, to include classroom, skills, online, and scenario training. The curriculum components must include lesson outlines, PowerPoint, handouts and other related documents to support each class.

(iii) Schedule of classes within the course, to include roster for each class, weekly schedule outlining the dates of training, the location of training, the phases of training, the number of hours for each class, the name of the class, the instructors who provided instruction.

(iv) Documentation of all training failures and remediation, to include class, date and location of training failure, the type of failure, the date, location and instructor who had oversight over the remediation of the failure and the result of the remediation.

(v) Testing measures, to include test questions and answers, individual student tests, student scores by student name, DPSST number and date of examination, and the overall class percentage.

(vi) Individual student records, to include evaluation forms, PQC qualification card, training records, and absence reports.

(vii) All skill sheets for every student completing some or all of the required skill sheets.

(7) Waiver. A person requesting a waiver of any course requirements is required to submit to the Department any supporting documents or pertinent expert testimony and evaluation requested. Any expense associated with providing such documentation, testimony or evaluation shall be borne by the person requesting the waiver or the requesting agency.

[ED. NOTE: Forms referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 181.640
Stats. Implemented: ORS 181.640
Hist.: PS 12, f. & ef. 12-19-77; PS 1-1979, f. 10-1-79, ef. 10-3-79; PS 1-1982, f. & ef. 7-2-82; PS 1-1983, f. & ef. 12-15-83; PS 1-1985, f. & ef. 4-24-85; Renumbered from 259-010-0030, PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90; PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95; PS 5-1997, f. 3-20-97, cert. ef. 3-25-97; PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97; BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98; BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98; BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98; BPSST 11-2000, f. 11-13-00, cert. ef. 11-15-00; BPSST 13-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-26-01 thru 4-10-02; BPSST 2-2002, f. & cert. ef. 2-6-02; BPSST 8-2002, f. & cert. ef. 4-3-02; BPSST 15-2002, f. & cert. ef. 7-5-02; DPSST 14-2003, f. & cert. ef. 12-22-03; DPSST 5-2004, f. & cert. ef. 4-23-04; DPSST 3-2007, f. & cert. ef. 1-12-06; DPSST 3-2007, f. & cert. ef. 1-12-07; DPSST 9-2008, f. & cert. ef. 7-15-08; DPSST 14-2008, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-08; DPSST 3-2009, f. & cert. ef. 4-8-09; DPSST 8-2009(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 9-15-09 thru 3-1-10; DPSST 15-2009, f. & cert. ef. 12-15-09; DPSST 3-2010, f. 4-12-10, cert. ef. 5-1-10; DPSST 2-2011, f. 3-23-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11; DPSST 13-2012(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-8-12 thru 10-1-12; DPSST 17-2012, f. & cert. ef. 8-24-12


 

Rule Caption: Remove references to retired police officer certification.

Adm. Order No.: DPSST 18-2012

Filed with Sec. of State: 8-27-2012

Certified to be Effective: 8-27-12

Notice Publication Date: 8-1-2012

Rules Amended: 259-008-0010, 259-013-0220, 259-013-0230

Subject: OAR 259-008-0068 (Retired Certified Police Officer) was repealed May 1, 2012. This update removes all references to the obsolete program. Housekeeping changes are made for clarity.

Rules Coordinator: Linsay Hale—(503) 378-2431

259-008-0010

Minimum Standards for Employment as a Law Enforcement Officer

(1) Citizenship.

(a) A person may not be employed as a corrections officer for more than one year unless the person is a citizen of the United States.

(b) A person may not be employed as a police or parole and probation officer for more than 18 months unless the person is a citizen of the United States.

(2) Age. No law enforcement unit in this state may employ any person under the age of 21 years as a police officer, corrections officer or parole and probation officer.

(3) Fingerprints. On or within 90 days prior to the date of employment, each police, corrections, or parole and probation officer must be fingerprinted on standard applicant fingerprint cards. The hiring agency is responsible for fingerprinting and must forward two (2) cards to the Oregon State Police Identification Services Section for processing and assignment of identification number.

(a) Applicant’s fingerprints will be retained and kept on file with the Oregon State Police Identification Services Section.

(b) The Oregon State Police Identification Services Section will notify the Department and the employing agency of any criminal record disclosed through processing the applicant’s fingerprint card.

(c) If any procedural change is made by either the Federal Bureau of Investigation or the Oregon State Police Identification Services Section the Department must comply with the most current requirements.

(d) If the fingerprint clearance has not been obtained prior to submission of the application for certification, a criminal history affidavit provided by the Department must be completed and returned to the Department by the applicant pending fingerprint clearance.

(4) Criminal Records. No police, corrections, or parole and probation officer may have been convicted:

(a) In this state or any other jurisdiction, of a crime designated under the law where the conviction occurred as being punishable as a felony or as a crime for which a maximum term of imprisonment of more than one (1) year may be imposed;

(b) Of violating any law involving the unlawful use, possession, delivery, or manufacture of a controlled substance, narcotic, or dangerous drug;

(c) In this state of violating any law subject to denial or revocation as identified in OAR 259-008-0070 or has been convicted of violating the statutory counterpart of any of those offenses in any other jurisdiction.

(5) Notification of Conviction:

(a) A law enforcement officer or instructor who is convicted of a crime, as identified in OAR 259-008-0070, while employed by a public or private safety agency must notify the agency head within 72 hours of the conviction.

(b) When an agency receives notification of a conviction from its employee, or another source, they must notify the Department within five (5) business days. The notification to the Department must be in writing and include the specific charges of the conviction, the county and state where the conviction occurred, the investigating agency and the date of the conviction.

(6) Moral Fitness (Professional Fitness). All law enforcement officers must be of good moral fitness. For purposes of this standard, lack of good moral fitness includes, but is not limited to:

(a) Mandatory disqualifying misconduct as described in OAR 259-008-0070(3); or

(b) Discretionary disqualifying misconduct as described in OAR 259-008-0070(4).

(7) Education:

(a) Applicants for the position of a law enforcement officer will be required to furnish documentary evidence of one of the following:

(A) High School diploma;

(B) Successful completion of the General Educational Development (GED) Test; or

(C) A four-year, post-secondary degree issued by an accredited, degree-granting college or university recognized by the Oregon Office of Degree Authorization under the provisions of ORS 348.604.

(i) For the purpose of determining high school graduation level as required by these rules, the applicant must have achieved a score no less than that required by the Oregon Board of Education before issuing an Oregon GED certificate.

(ii) Applicants holding a GED from another state may be required to obtain an Oregon certificate at the discretion of the Department.

(b) Evidence of the above must consist of official transcripts, diplomas, or GED test report forms. Other documentation may be accepted, at the discretion of the Department.

(c) Reading and Writing Standard. Before beginning basic police training, challenging basic police training, or beginning the police career officer development course, each applicant must provide evidence to DPSST that the applicant has attained a minimum of a 12th grade reading and writing level in the English language.

(A) The hiring agency is responsible for ensuring a Department-approved reading and writing test has been administered. The hiring agency must forward the results of the test to the Department on a Form F-5 (Application for Training) prior to the applicant being admitted to basic police training.

(B) Individuals submitting transcripts verifying that they possess at least a four-year academic degree from an institution recognized by the Department under the provisions of OAR 259-008-0045 are exempt from completing the 12th grade reading/writing test prior to attending a course identified in this section.

(8) Physical Examination. All law enforcement officers and applicants must be examined by a licensed physician or surgeon.

(a) The medical examination must be completed not more than 180 days prior to initial offer of employment, nor more than 90 days after initial offer of employment, and must conform to applicable standards of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA). Title 42 USC 12101.

(b) Individuals who have had a successfully completed physical examination (while at the same employer) and are selected for a certifiable position in a discipline in which the individual is not yet certified must complete and pass a new physical examination.

(c) Except as provided in (e) below, the Department will not require a new physical examination when a law enforcement officer obtains employment, or re-employment, in the same discipline if the officer:

(A) Has had a successfully completed a physical examination, and

(B) Is currently certified; or

(C) Is an officer currently employed full-time in another jurisdiction who has successfully completed a comparable physical examination in that jurisdiction.

(d) Notwithstanding subsection (c), a medical examination may be required by a hiring agency at its discretion.

(e) Notwithstanding subsection (c), any law enforcement officer who is separated from employment for a reason related to a physical inability to perform an essential task of a law enforcement officer must successfully complete a physical examination prior to obtaining re-employment in a certifiable position.

(f) Police, Corrections, and Parole and Probation applicants must meet the following criteria:

(A) Visual Acuity. Corrected vision must be at least 20/30 (Snellen) in each eye. Due to the demonstrated likelihood of dislodgment or breakage, candidates who are able to wear only glasses with frames must meet an uncorrected standard not worse than 20/100 (Snellen) in each eye. Those candidates who use soft contact lenses (SCLs) must have vision correctable to at least 20/30 in each eye, with no uncorrected standard, provided the employing agency will monitor compliance. Replacement glasses or lenses (as appropriate) must be on the person or readily available at all times during each work shift.

(B) Color Vision. Red or green deficiencies may be acceptable, providing the applicant can read at least nine (9) of the first thirteen (13) plates of the Ishihara Test (24 Plate Edition). Applicants who fail the Ishihara test can meet the color vision standard by demonstrating that they can correctly discriminate colors via a field test conducted by the employer and approved by DPSST.

(C) Depth Perception. Depth Perception must be sufficient to demonstrate stereopsis adequate to perform the essential tasks of the job. The recommended test is the Random Stereo Test with 60 seconds of arc.

(D) Peripheral Vision. Visual Field Performance must be 140 degrees in the horizontal meridian combined.

(E) Night Blindness. A history of night blindness should be evaluated to determine applicant’s capacity to perform essential tasks at night or in dark or low light settings.

(g) Applicants for the position of police or corrections officer must have sufficient hearing in both ears to perform essential tasks without posing a direct threat to themselves or others. The applicant must have no average loss greater than 25 decibels (db) at the 500, 1,000, 2,000 and 3,000-Hertz levels in either ear with no single loss in excess of 40 db.

(h) Applicants for the position of parole and probation officer must have sufficient hearing in both ears to perform essential tasks without posing a direct threat to themselves or others. The applicant must have no average loss greater than 35 decibels (db) at the 500, 1000, 2000, and 3000 Hertz levels in either ear with no single loss in excess of 45 db.

(i) If amplification device(s) is (are) necessary to meet the criteria in (g) or (h) above, or if applicant cannot meet the above criteria and wishes to pursue application, applicant must:

(A) Obtain a hearing evaluation by a licensed audiologist or otorhinolaryngologist (ear, nose, throat) to determine current hearing aid requirement; and

(B) Achieve a Speech Reception Threshold (SRT) of no greater than 25 db for each ear;

(C) Police, corrections and parole and probation officers must achieve a Speech Discrimination test score of no less than 90% utilizing a standard 50-word presentation at 60 db Hearing Threshold Level (HTL). The Department may require an applicant to have another examination by a licensed audiologist or otorhinolaryngologist (ear, nose, and throat) designated by the Department to verify that the applicant’s hearing meets the Board’s minimum hearing standard. The verification examination will be at the expense of the applicant or the applicant’s employing agency. The equipment utilized for all of these evaluations must be calibrated annually using current ANSI standards.

(D) Hearing amplification devices used to meet the hearing standard must be the type that protects the applicant from further hearing degradation due to amplification of loud sounds.

(j) Applicants for the position of police, corrections, or parole and probation officer must be able to use vocal chords and have significant speaking ability to perform speaking-related essential tasks. For police and corrections officers abnormalities of the nose, throat or mouth must not interfere with the applicant’s breathing or proper fitting of gas mask or similar device.

(k) Applicants for the position of police, corrections, or parole and probation officer who have a history of organic cardio-vascular disease or a finding during the medical examination of organic cardio-vascular disease will necessitate further medical evaluation.

(A) Resting blood pressure must be less than or equal to 140 mmHg systolic and 90 mmHg diastolic on three successive readings.

(B) Applicants must not have a functional and therapeutic cardiac classification greater than the Heart Association’s Class A.

(C) Failure to meet guidelines (k), (A) and (B) will require further medical evaluation.

(D) If the applicant has controlled hypertension not exceeding the above standards and is on medication with side effect profiles, which do not interfere with performance of duty, then the condition may not be excludable.

(E) Functional Capacity I patients with cardiac disease may not be excludable, if they have no limitations of physical activity and ordinary physical activity does not cause discomfort and they do not have symptoms of cardiac insufficiency, nor experience angina pain.

(F) Therapeutic Classification A patients with cardiac disease, whose physical activity is restricted, should be evaluated thoroughly.

(G) If further medical examination is required under (k), it will be at the expense of the applicant or hiring authority.

(l) All law enforcement applicants must submit a current-version DPSST Medical Examination Report (DPSST Form F2), or a medical report completed by a licensed physician containing at a minimum the information on Form F2 and a signed statement by the examining physician that the applicant does not have any condition, physical, mental, or emotional, which, in his/her opinion, suggests further examination. This Report will be furnished to the examining physician by the hiring agency. The physician must indicate that the applicant is or is not physically able to perform the duties of a law enforcement officer as prescribed by DPSST.

(m) A copy of the Medical Examination Report must be sent to the Department prior to acceptance into a basic course, or any course where such report is required by the Department.

(n) The Department may require an applicant offered conditional employment to take a subsequent examination by a licensed physician of the Department’s choice at the expense of the applicant or the hiring authority.

(o) The Board may waive any physical requirement where, in its judgment, the waiver would not be detrimental to the performance of an officer’s duties, including the protection of the public and the safety of co-workers. The applicant may be required to demonstrate the ability to perform the essential functions of the job.

(p) A person or department head requesting a waiver of any physical requirement set forth in section (8) of this rule shall submit the request to the Department in writing, accompanied by supporting documents or pertinent testimony which would justify the action requested. The supporting documents must include information pertinent to the waiver request. The Board or Department may require additional documentation or testimony by the person or department head requesting the waiver if clarification is needed. Any expense associated with providing documentation or testimony will be borne by the person requesting the waiver or the requesting agency. If the person requesting the waiver does not obtain employment within one (1) year from the date a waiver is granted, the waiver will be considered void.

(A) If the Board grants a waiver, it will be recorded on the certification and any subsequent certification unless removed by the Board upon proof that the condition prompting the waiver no longer exists.

(B) If the Board denies a request for a waiver of any physical requirement set forth in section (8) of this rule, the Department will issue Notice and proceed as provided in section (9) of this rule.

(9) Contested Case Hearing Process for denial of waiver.

(a) Initiation of Proceedings: Upon determination that the reason for denial of a waiver is supported by factual data meeting the statutory and administrative rule requirements, a contested case notice will be prepared.

(b) Contested Case Notice: The “Contested Case Notice” will be prepared in accordance with the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure adopted under OAR 259-005-0015. The Department will have a copy of the notice served on the public safety professional or individual.

(c) Response Time: A party who has been served with a “Contested Case Notice” has 60 days from the date of mailing or personal service of the notice in which to file with the Department a written request for a hearing.

(d) Default Order: If a timely request for a hearing is not received, the Contested Case Notice will become a final order denying the requested waiver.

(e) Hearing Request: When a request for a hearing is received in a timely manner, the Department will refer the matter to the Office of Administrative Hearings.

(f) Proposed Order: The assigned Administrative Law Judge will prepare Findings of Fact, Conclusions of Law and Proposed Final Order and serve a copy on the Department and on each party.

(g) Exceptions and Arguments: A party must file specific written exceptions and arguments with the Department no later than 14 days from date of service of the Findings of Fact, Conclusions of Law, and Proposed Final Order.

(A) The Department may extend the time within which the exceptions and arguments must be filed upon a showing of good cause.

(B) When the exceptions and arguments are filed, the party making the exceptions and arguments must serve a copy on all parties of record in the case and provide the Department with proof of service. A failure to serve copies and provide proof of service will invalidate the filing of exceptions and arguments as being untimely, and the Department may disregard the filing in making a final determination of the case.

(h) Final Order: The Department will issue a final order if a public safety professional or individual fails to file exceptions and arguments in a timely manner.

[ED. NOTE: Forms referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 181.640, 181.644, 183.341
Stats. Implemented: ORS 181.640, 181.644, 183.341
Hist.: PS 12, f. & ef. 12-19-77; PS 1-1981, f. 9-26-81, ef. 11-2-81; PS 1-1983, f. & ef. 12-15-83; PS 1-1985, f. & ef. 4-24-85; PS 1-1987, f. & ef. 10-26-87; Renumbered from 259-010-0015, PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90; PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95; PS 2-1996, f. 5-15-96, cert. ef. 5-20-96; PS 4-1997, f. 3-20-97, cert. ef. 3-25-97; PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97; BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98; BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98; BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98; BPSST 1-1999, f. & cert. ef. 3-9-99; BPSST 9-2000, f. 11-13-00, cert. ef. 11-15-00; BPSST 3-2001, f. & cert. ef. 8-22-01; BPSST 12-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-26-01 thru 4-5-02; BPSST 5-2002(Temp), f. 4-3-02, cert. ef. 4-6-02 thru 8-1-02; BPSST 16-2002, f. & cert. ef. 7-5-2002; BPSST 20-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-21-02; DPSST 3-2003, f. & cert. ef. 1-22-03; DPSST 6-2003, f. & cert. ef. 4-11-03; DPSST 8-2003, f. & cert. ef. 4-18-03; DPSST 14-2003, f. & cert. ef. 12-22-03; DPSST 3-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-28-06; DPSST 12-2006, f. & cert. ef. 10-13-06; DPSST 10-2007, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-07; DPSST 13-2007(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-1-07 thru 4-18-08; DPSST 1-2008(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-15-08 thru 4-18-08; DPSST 4-2008, f. & cert. ef. 4-15-08; DPSST 21-2008, f. 12-15-08, cert. ef. 1-1-09; DPSST 10-2009, f. & cert. ef. 9-21-09; DPSST 9-2011, f. & cert. ef. 6-28-11; DPSST 14-2011, f. 9-26-11, cert. ef. 10-1-11; DPSST 18-2012, f. & cert. ef. 8-27-12

259-013-0220

Individuals Subject to Criminal Records Checks

The Department may require the fingerprints of:

(1) A fire service professional;

(2) A public safety professional or instructor;

(3) A private security professional;

(4) A private investigator;

(5) A polygraph intern or general license applicant;

(6) A candidate for election to the office of Sheriff.

Stat. Auth.: ORS 181. 534, 181.612 & 206.015
Stats. Implemented: ORS 181.612
Hist.: DPSST 17-2008, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-08; DPSST 18-2012, f. & cert. ef. 8-27-12

259-013-0230

Criminal Records Check Required

(1) Who Conducts Check.

(a) The Department may request that the Department of State Police conduct a criminal records check on an individual. If a nationwide criminal records check of an individual is necessary, the Department may request that the Department of State Police conduct the check, including fingerprint identification, through the Federal Bureau of Investigation.

(b) The Department may conduct criminal records checks on individuals through the Law Enforcement Data System maintained by the Department of State Police in accordance with the adopted rules, and established procedures, of the Department of State Police.

(2) When Check is Required (New Checks and Re-checks). An individual is required to have a check in the following circumstances:

(a) When a public safety professional applies for, or is employed by, a law enforcement agency, the public safety professional or applicant must submit to a criminal records check as required by OAR 259-008-0010.

(b) When a person applies for a license to conduct polygraphs, the polygrapher, or applicant, must submit to a criminal records check as required by the provisions of OAR 259-0020-0010 or 259-0020-0015.

(c) When a person is elected or appointed to the Office of Sheriff, the applicant must submit to a criminal records check as required by the provisions of OAR 259-008-0075.

(d) When a person applies for a private security certificate or license, the applicant must submit to a criminal records check as required by the provisions of OAR 259-060-0120.

(e) When a person applies for a private investigator license, the applicant must submit to a criminal records check as required by the provisions of OAR 259-061-0070.

(f) When a person is an instructor for the Department who is not certified as a public safety professional.

(g) When a check is required by federal or state laws or regulations, other rules adopted by the Department, or by contract or written agreement with the Department.

Stat. Auth.: ORS 181.534 & 181.612
Stats. Implemented: ORS 181.612
Hist.: DPSST 17-2008, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-08; DPSST 18-2012, f. & cert. ef. 8-27-12


 

Rule Caption: Update contested case proceedings; Remove ORS 167.54 from mandatory disqualifying list of crimes.

Adm. Order No.: DPSST 19-2012

Filed with Sec. of State: 8-31-2012

Certified to be Effective: 8-31-12

Notice Publication Date: 6-1-2012

Rules Amended: 259-008-0010, 259-008-0011, 259-008-0070, 259-009-0070

Subject: The Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure were updated effective January 1, 2012. All Department of Public Safety Standards and Training rules containing references to the contested case proceedings are updated to reflect these changes. Also, specific rule number citations are replaced with a general reference to “the applicable provisions of the Administrative Procedures Act,” per Department of Justice advice.

 HB 3323, passed during the 2011 legislative session, repeals the crime of Furnishing Sexually Explicit Material to a Minor (ORS 167.54). The crime is removed from the mandatory disqualifying list of crimes found in OAR 259-008-0070.

Rules Coordinator: Linsay Hale—(503) 378-2431

259-008-0010

Minimum Standards for Employment as a Law Enforcement Officer

(1) Citizenship.

(a) A person may not be employed as a corrections officer for more than one year unless the person is a citizen of the United States.

(b) A person may not be employed as a police or parole and probation officer for more than 18 months unless the person is a citizen of the United States.

(2) Age. No law enforcement unit in this state may employ any person under the age of 21 years as a police officer, corrections officer or parole and probation officer.

(3) Fingerprints. On or within 90 days prior to the date of employment, each police, corrections, or parole and probation officer must be fingerprinted on standard applicant fingerprint cards. The hiring agency is responsible for fingerprinting and must forward two (2) cards to the Oregon State Police Identification Services Section for processing and assignment of identification number.

(a) Applicant’s fingerprints will be retained and kept on file with the Oregon State Police Identification Services Section.

(b) The Oregon State Police Identification Services Section will notify the Department and the employing agency of any criminal record disclosed through processing the applicant’s fingerprint card.

(c) If any procedural change is made by either the Federal Bureau of Investigation or the Oregon State Police Identification Services Section the Department must comply with the most current requirements.

(d) If the fingerprint clearance has not been obtained prior to submission of the application for certification, a criminal history affidavit provided by the Department must be completed and returned to the Department by the applicant pending fingerprint clearance.

(4) Criminal Records. No police, corrections, or parole and probation officer may have been convicted:

(a) In this state or any other jurisdiction, of a crime designated under the law where the conviction occurred as being punishable as a felony or as a crime for which a maximum term of imprisonment of more than one (1) year may be imposed;

(b) Of violating any law involving the unlawful use, possession, delivery, or manufacture of a controlled substance, narcotic, or dangerous drug;

(c) In this state of violating any law subject to denial or revocation as identified in OAR 259-008-0070 or has been convicted of violating the statutory counterpart of any of those offenses in any other jurisdiction.

(5) Notification of Conviction:

(a) A law enforcement officer or instructor who is convicted of a crime, as identified in OAR 259-008-0070, while employed by a public or private safety agency must notify the agency head within 72 hours of the conviction.

(b) When an agency receives notification of a conviction from its employee, or another source, they must notify the Department within five (5) business days. The notification to the Department must be in writing and include the specific charges of the conviction, the county and state where the conviction occurred, the investigating agency and the date of the conviction.

(6) Moral Fitness (Professional Fitness). All law enforcement officers must be of good moral fitness. For purposes of this standard, lack of good moral fitness includes, but is not limited to:

(a) Mandatory disqualifying misconduct as described in OAR 259-008-0070(3); or

(b) Discretionary disqualifying misconduct as described in OAR 259-008-0070(4).

(7) Education:

(a) Applicants for the position of a law enforcement officer will be required to furnish documentary evidence of one of the following:

(A) High School diploma;

(B) Successful completion of the General Educational Development (GED) Test; or

(C) A four-year, post-secondary degree issued by an accredited, degree-granting college or university recognized by the Oregon Office of Degree Authorization under the provisions of ORS 348.604.

(i) For the purpose of determining high school graduation level as required by these rules, the applicant must have achieved a score no less than that required by the Oregon Board of Education before issuing an Oregon GED certificate.

(ii) Applicants holding a GED from another state may be required to obtain an Oregon certificate at the discretion of the Department.

(b) Evidence of the above must consist of official transcripts, diplomas, or GED test report forms. Other documentation may be accepted, at the discretion of the Department.

(c) Reading and Writing Standard. Before beginning basic police training, challenging basic police training, or beginning the police career officer development course, each applicant must provide evidence to DPSST that the applicant has attained a minimum of a 12th grade reading and writing level in the English language.

(A) The hiring agency is responsible for ensuring a Department-approved reading and writing test has been administered. The hiring agency must forward the results of the test to the Department on a Form F-5 (Application for Training) prior to the applicant being admitted to basic police training.

(B) Individuals submitting transcripts verifying that they possess at least a four-year academic degree from an institution recognized by the Department under the provisions of OAR 259-008-0045 are exempt from completing the 12th grade reading/writing test prior to attending a course identified in this section.

(8) Physical Examination. All law enforcement officers and applicants must be examined by a licensed physician or surgeon.

(a) The medical examination must be completed not more than 180 days prior to initial offer of employment, nor more than 90 days after initial offer of employment, and must conform to applicable standards of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA). Title 42 USC 12101.

(b) Individuals who have had a successfully completed physical examination (while at the same employer) and are selected for a certifiable position in a discipline in which the individual is not yet certified must complete and pass a new physical examination.

(c) Except as provided in (e) below, the Department will not require a new physical examination when a law enforcement officer obtains employment, or re-employment, in the same discipline if the officer:

(A) Has had a successfully completed a physical examination, and

(B) Is currently certified; or

(C) Is an officer currently employed full-time in another jurisdiction who has successfully completed a comparable physical examination in that jurisdiction.

(d) Notwithstanding subsection (c), a medical examination may be required by a hiring agency at its discretion.

(e) Notwithstanding subsection (c), any law enforcement officer who is separated from employment for a reason related to a physical inability to perform an essential task of a law enforcement officer must successfully complete a physical examination prior to obtaining re-employment in a certifiable position.

(f) Police, Corrections, and Parole and Probation applicants must meet the following criteria:

(A) Visual Acuity. Corrected vision must be at least 20/30 (Snellen) in each eye. Due to the demonstrated likelihood of dislodgment or breakage, candidates who are able to wear only glasses with frames must meet an uncorrected standard not worse than 20/100 (Snellen) in each eye. Those candidates who use soft contact lenses (SCLs) must have vision correctable to at least 20/30 in each eye, with no uncorrected standard, provided the employing agency will monitor compliance. Replacement glasses or lenses (as appropriate) must be on the person or readily available at all times during each work shift.

(B) Color Vision. Red or green deficiencies may be acceptable, providing the applicant can read at least nine (9) of the first thirteen (13) plates of the Ishihara Test (24 Plate Edition). Applicants who fail the Ishihara test can meet the color vision standard by demonstrating that they can correctly discriminate colors via a field test conducted by the employer and approved by DPSST.

(C) Depth Perception. Depth Perception must be sufficient to demonstrate stereopsis adequate to perform the essential tasks of the job. The recommended test is the Random Stereo Test with 60 seconds of arc.

(D) Peripheral Vision. Visual Field Performance must be 140 degrees in the horizontal meridian combined.

(E) Night Blindness. A history of night blindness should be evaluated to determine applicant’s capacity to perform essential tasks at night or in dark or low light settings.

(g) Applicants for the position of police or corrections officer must have sufficient hearing in both ears to perform essential tasks without posing a direct threat to themselves or others. The applicant must have no average loss greater than 25 decibels (db) at the 500, 1,000, 2,000 and 3,000-Hertz levels in either ear with no single loss in excess of 40 db.

(h) Applicants for the position of parole and probation officer must have sufficient hearing in both ears to perform essential tasks without posing a direct threat to themselves or others. The applicant must have no average loss greater than 35 decibels (db) at the 500, 1000, 2000, and 3000 Hertz levels in either ear with no single loss in excess of 45 db.

(i) If amplification device(s) is (are) necessary to meet the criteria in (g) or (h) above, or if applicant cannot meet the above criteria and wishes to pursue application, applicant must:

(A) Obtain a hearing evaluation by a licensed audiologist or otorhinolaryngologist (ear, nose, throat) to determine current hearing aid requirement; and

(B) Achieve a Speech Reception Threshold (SRT) of no greater than 25 db for each ear;

(C) Police, corrections and parole and probation officers must achieve a Speech Discrimination test score of no less than 90% utilizing a standard 50-word presentation at 60 db Hearing Threshold Level (HTL). The Department may require an applicant to have another examination by a licensed audiologist or otorhinolaryngologist (ear, nose, and throat) designated by the Department to verify that the applicant’s hearing meets the Board’s minimum hearing standard. The verification examination will be at the expense of the applicant or the applicant’s employing agency. The equipment utilized for all of these evaluations must be calibrated annually using current ANSI standards.

(D) Hearing amplification devices used to meet the hearing standard must be the type that protects the applicant from further hearing degradation due to amplification of loud sounds.

(j) Applicants for the position of police, corrections, or parole and probation officer must be able to use vocal chords and have significant speaking ability to perform speaking-related essential tasks. For police and corrections officers abnormalities of the nose, throat or mouth must not interfere with the applicant’s breathing or proper fitting of gas mask or similar device.

(k) Applicants for the position of police, corrections, or parole and probation officer who have a history of organic cardio-vascular disease or a finding during the medical examination of organic cardio-vascular disease will necessitate further medical evaluation.

(A) Resting blood pressure must be less than or equal to 140 mmHg systolic and 90 mmHg diastolic on three successive readings.

(B) Applicants must not have a functional and therapeutic cardiac classification greater than the Heart Association’s Class A.

(C) Failure to meet guidelines (k), (A) and (B) will require further medical evaluation.

(D) If the applicant has controlled hypertension not exceeding the above standards and is on medication with side effect profiles, which do not interfere with performance of duty, then the condition may not be excludable.

(E) Functional Capacity I patients with cardiac disease may not be excludable, if they have no limitations of physical activity and ordinary physical activity does not cause discomfort and they do not have symptoms of cardiac insufficiency, nor experience angina pain.

(F) Therapeutic Classification A patients with cardiac disease, whose physical activity is restricted, should be evaluated thoroughly.

(G) If further medical examination is required under (k), it will be at the expense of the applicant or hiring authority.

(l) All law enforcement applicants must submit a current-version DPSST Medical Examination Report (DPSST Form F2), or a medical report completed by a licensed physician containing at a minimum the information on Form F2 and a signed statement by the examining physician that the applicant does not have any condition, physical, mental, or emotional, which, in his/her opinion, suggests further examination. This Report will be furnished to the examining physician by the hiring agency. The physician must indicate that the applicant is or is not physically able to perform the duties of a law enforcement officer as prescribed by DPSST.

(m) A copy of the Medical Examination Report must be sent to the Department prior to acceptance into a basic course, or any course where such report is required by the Department.

(n) The Department may require an applicant offered conditional employment to take a subsequent examination by a licensed physician of the Department’s choice at the expense of the applicant or the hiring authority.

(o) The Board may waive any physical requirement where, in its judgment, the waiver would not be detrimental to the performance of an officer’s duties, including the protection of the public and the safety of co-workers. The applicant may be required to demonstrate the ability to perform the essential functions of the job.

(p) A person or department head requesting a waiver of any physical requirement set forth in section (8) of this rule shall submit the request to the Department in writing, accompanied by supporting documents or pertinent testimony which would justify the action requested. The supporting documents must include information pertinent to the waiver request. The Board or Department may require additional documentation or testimony by the person or department head requesting the waiver if clarification is needed. Any expense associated with providing documentation or testimony will be borne by the person requesting the waiver or the requesting agency. If the person requesting the waiver does not obtain employment within one (1) year from the date a waiver is granted, the waiver will be considered void.

(A) If the Board grants a waiver, it will be recorded on the certification and any subsequent certification unless removed by the Board upon proof that the condition prompting the waiver no longer exists.

(B) If the Board denies a request for a waiver of any physical requirement set forth in section (8) of this rule, the Department will issue Notice and proceed as provided in section (9) of this rule.

(9) Contested Case Hearing Process for Denial of Waiver.

(a) Initiation of Proceedings: Upon determination that the reason for denial of a waiver is supported by factual data meeting the statutory and administrative rule requirements, a contested case notice will be prepared.

(b) Contested Case Notice: All contested case notice will be prepared in accordance with the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.

(c) Response Time: A party who has been served with a “Contested Case Notice of Intent to Deny a Waiver” has 60 days from the date of mailing or personal service of the notice in which to file a written request for a hearing with the Department.

(d) Default Order: If a timely request for a hearing is not received, the Contested Case Notice will become a final order denying the requested waiver pursuant to OAR 137-003-00672.

(e) Hearing Request: If a timely request for a hearing is received, the Department will refer the matter to the Office of Administrative Hearings in accordance with OAR 137-003-0515.

(f) Proposed and Final Orders: In cases in which a hearing was requested, proposed orders, exceptions, and final orders will be issued pursuant to the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.

[ED. NOTE: Forms referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 181.640, 181.644 & 183.341
Stats. Implemented: ORS 181.640, 181.644 & 183.341
Hist.: PS 12, f. & ef. 12-19-77; PS 1-1981, f. 9-26-81, ef. 11-2-81; PS 1-1983, f. & ef. 12-15-83; PS 1-1985, f. & ef. 4-24-85; PS 1-1987, f. & ef. 10-26-87; Renumbered from 259-010-0015, PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90; PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95; PS 2-1996, f. 5-15-96, cert. ef. 5-20-96; PS 4-1997, f. 3-20-97, cert. ef. 3-25-97; PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97; BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98; BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98; BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98; BPSST 1-1999, f. & cert. ef. 3-9-99; BPSST 9-2000, f. 11-13-00, cert. ef. 11-15-00; BPSST 3-2001, f. & cert. ef. 8-22-01; BPSST 12-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-26-01 thru 4-5-02; BPSST 5-2002(Temp), f. 4-3-02, cert. ef. 4-6-02 thru 8-1-02; BPSST 16-2002, f. & cert. ef. 7-5-2002; BPSST 20-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-21-02; DPSST 3-2003, f. & cert. ef. 1-22-03; DPSST 6-2003, f. & cert. ef. 4-11-03; DPSST 8-2003, f. & cert. ef. 4-18-03; DPSST 14-2003, f. & cert. ef. 12-22-03; DPSST 3-2006, f. & cert. ef. 2-28-06; DPSST 12-2006, f. & cert. ef. 10-13-06; DPSST 10-2007, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-07; DPSST 13-2007(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-1-07 thru 4-18-08; DPSST 1-2008(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 1-15-08 thru 4-18-08; DPSST 4-2008, f. & cert. ef. 4-15-08; DPSST 21-2008, f. 12-15-08, cert. ef. 1-1-09; DPSST 10-2009, f. & cert. ef. 9-21-09; DPSST 9-2011, f. & cert. ef. 6-28-11; DPSST 14-2011, f. 9-26-11, cert. ef. 10-1-11; DPSST 18-2012, f. & cert. ef. 8-27-12; DPSST 19-2012, f. & cert. ef. 8-31-12

259-008-0011

Minimum Standards for Employment as a Telecommunicator and Emergency Medical Dispatcher

(1) Fingerprints. On or before the date of employment, each telecommunicator and emergency medical dispatcher must be fingerprinted on standard applicant fingerprint cards.

(a) The hiring agency, if a public agency, is responsible for fingerprinting and will forward two (2) cards to the Oregon State Police Identification Services Section for processing and assignment of identification number.

(b) If the hiring agency is a private agency it is responsible for fingerprinting and will forward two (2) cards to the Department along with the appropriate fee.

(A) Applicant’s fingerprints will be retained and kept on file with the Oregon State Police Identification Services Section.

(B) The Oregon State Police Identification Services Section will notify the Department and the employing agency of any criminal record disclosed through processing the applicant’s fingerprint card.

(C) If any procedural change is made by either the Federal Bureau of Investigation or the Oregon State Police Identification Services Section, the Department will comply with the most current requirements.

(D) If the fingerprint clearance has not been obtained prior to submission of the application for certification, a criminal history affidavit provided by the Department will be completed and returned to the Department by the applicant pending fingerprint clearance.

(2) Criminal Records. No telecommunicator or emergency medical dispatcher will have been convicted:

(a) In this state or any other jurisdiction, of a crime designated under the law where the conviction occurred as being punishable as a felony or as a crime for which a maximum term of imprisonment of more than one (1) year may be imposed;

(b) Of violating any law involving the unlawful use, possession, delivery, or manufacture of a controlled substance, narcotic, or dangerous drug;

(c) In this state of violating any law subject to denial or revocation as identified in OAR 259-008-0070 or has been convicted of violating the statutory counterpart of any of those offenses in any other jurisdiction.

(3) Notification of Conviction:

(a) A telecommunicator or emergency medical dispatcher who is convicted of a crime as identified in OAR 259-008-0070 while employed by a public or private public safety agency must notify the agency head within 72 hours of conviction.

(b) When an agency receives notification of a conviction from its employee or another source, they must notify the Department within five (5) business days. The notification to the Department must be in writing and include the specific charges of the conviction, the county and state where the conviction occurred, the investigating agency and the date of conviction.

(4) Moral Fitness (Professional Fitness). All telecommunicators and emergency medical dispatchers must be of good moral fitness. For purposes of this standard, lack of good moral fitness includes, but is not limited to:

(a) Mandatory disqualifying misconduct as described in OAR 259-008-0070(3); or

(b) Discretionary disqualifying misconduct as described in OAR 259-008-0070(4).

(5) Education:

(a) Applicants for the position of a telecommunicator or emergency medical dispatcher will be required to furnish documentary evidence of one of the following:

(A) High School diploma;

(B) Successful completion of the General Educational Development (GED) Test; or

(C) A four-year, post-secondary degree issued by a degree-granting college or university accredited by a recognized national or regional accrediting body, or recognized by the Oregon Office of Degree Authorization under the provisions of ORS 348.604.

(i) For the purpose of determining high school graduation level as required by these rules, the applicant must have achieved a score no less than that required by the Oregon Board of Education before issuing an Oregon GED certificate.

(ii) Applicants holding a GED from another state may be required to obtain an Oregon certificate at the discretion of the Department.

(b) Evidence of the above must consist of official transcripts, diplomas, or GED test report forms. Other documentation may be accepted, at the discretion of the Department.

(6) Reading Standard. Before beginning basic telecommunicator or Emergency Medical Dispatcher (EMD) training or challenging basic telecommunicator training, each applicant must provide evidence to DPSST that the applicant has attained a minimum of a 12th grade reading level in the English language.

(a) The hiring agency is responsible for ensuring a Department-approved reading test has been administered. The hiring agency must forward the results of the test to the Department on a Form F-5 (Application for Training) prior to the applicant being admitted to basic telecommunicator or EMD training.

(b) Individuals submitting transcripts verifying that they possess at least a four-year academic degree from an institution recognized by DPSST under the provisions of OAR 259-008-0045 are exempt from completing the 12th grade reading test prior to attending a course identified in this section.

(7) Physical Examination. All Telecommunicators and Emergency Medical Dispatcher applicants must be examined by a licensed health professional.

(a) The medical examination must be completed not more than 180 days prior to initial offer of employment, and not more than 90 days after the initial offer of employment.

(b) The examination must conform to applicable standards of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA). Title 42 USC 12101.

(c) Individuals who have successfully completed a physical examination (while at the same employer) and are selected for a certifiable position in a discipline in which the individual is not yet certified must complete and pass a new physical examination.

(d) The Department will not require a new physical examination when a Telecommunicator or Emergency Medical Dispatcher obtains employment or re-employment in the same discipline if the Telecommunicator or Emergency Medical Dispatcher:

(A) Has had a successfully completed a physical examination, and

(B) Is currently certified; or

(C) Is currently employed full-time in another jurisdiction and has successfully completed a comparable physical examination in that jurisdiction.

(e) Notwithstanding subsection (d), a medical examination may be required by a hiring agency at its discretion.

(f) Telecommunicator and Emergency Medical Dispatcher applicants must meet the following criteria:

(A) Visual Acuity. Corrected vision must be at least 20/30 (Snellen) when tested using both eyes together.

(B) Color Vision. Red or green deficiencies may be acceptable, providing the applicant can read at least nine (9) of the first thirteen (13) plates of the Ishihara Test (24 Plate Edition). Applicants who fail the Ishihara test can meet the color vision standard by demonstrating that they can correctly discriminate colors via a field test conducted by the employer and approved by DPSST. The results of the field test and the methods for testing must be maintained by the employing agency.

(i) Any employing agency that conducts a field test to meet the color vision standard must also complete a Department approved affidavit attesting that the applicant can either correctly discriminate colors or is able to successfully perform the required tasks of a Telecommunicator or Emergency Medical Dispatcher, notwithstanding the applicant’s inability to correctly discriminate colors.

(ii) Any affidavit required by (i), that the Department receives and accepts, is non-transferable to any subsequent employer and may not be used by any other entity for certification purposes.

(iii) Notwithstanding subsection (d) of this rule, each employer must complete an agency-specific field test and a Department approved affidavit as described in subsection (i) of this section for any Telecommunicator or Emergency Medical Dispatcher who previously met the color vision standard by completing a field test.

(C) Peripheral Vision. Visual Field Performance must be 120 degrees in the horizontal meridian combined.

(g) Applicants for the position of Telecommunicator or Emergency Medical Dispatcher must have sufficient hearing in both ears to perform essential tasks without posing a direct threat to themselves or others.

(A) The applicant must meet National Emergency Number Association (NENA) hearing standard 54-002 (June 10, 2006).

(B) If the applicant cannot meet the identified hearing standard without correction, the applicant may utilize hearing amplification devices to meet the hearing standard. The Department may require an applicant to have another examination by a licensed audiologist or otorhinolaryngologist (ear, nose, throat) designated by the Department to verify that the applicant’s corrected hearing meets the Board’s minimum hearing standard.

(h) Applicants for the position of Telecommunicator or Emergency Medical Dispatcher must be able to use vocal cords and exhibit normal speech patterns, sufficient to perform speaking-related essential tasks.

(8) If further medical examination is required, it will be at the expense of the applicant or the hiring authority.

(9) All Telecommunicator and Emergency Medical Dispatcher applicants must submit a current-version Medical Examination Report for Telecommunicators and Emergency Medical Dispatchers (DPSST Form F-2T) or a signed medical report completed by a licensed health professional identified by the Department containing, at a minimum, the information on Form F-2T prior to the acceptance into a basic course or any course where such a report is required by the Department. The Form F-2T will be furnished to the examining health professional by the hiring agency.

(10) The Department may require an applicant offered conditional employment to take a subsequent examination by a licensed physician of the Department’s choice at the expense of the applicant or the hiring authority.

(11) The Board may waive any physical requirement where, in its judgment, the waiver would not be detrimental to the performance of a Telecommunicator or Emergency Medical Dispatcher’s duties. The applicant may be required to demonstrate the ability to perform the essential functions of the job.

(12) A person or department head requesting a waiver of any physical requirement set forth in section (11) of this rule must submit the request to the Department in writing, accompanied by supporting documents or pertinent testimony which would justify the action requested. The supporting documents must include information pertinent to the waiver request.

(a) The Board or Department may require additional documentation or testimony by the person or department head requesting the waiver if clarification is needed.

(b) Any expense associated with providing documentation or testimony will be borne by the person requesting the waiver or the requesting agency.

(c) If the person requesting the waiver does not obtain employment within one (1) year from the date a waiver is granted, the waiver will be considered void.

(d) If the Board grants a waiver, it will be recorded on the certification and any subsequent certification unless removed by the Board upon proof that the condition prompting the waiver no longer exists.

(e) If the Board denies a request for a waiver of any physical requirement set forth in section (7) of this rule, the Department will issue Notice and proceed as provided in section (13) of this rule.

(13) Contested Case Hearing Process for Denial of Waiver.

(a) Initiation of Proceedings: Upon determination that the reason for denial of a waiver is supported by factual data meeting the statutory and administrative rule requirements, a contested case notice will be prepared.

(b) Contested Case Notice: All contested case notice will be prepared in accordance with the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.

(c) Response Time: A party who has been served with a “Contested Case Notice of Intent to Deny a Waiver” has 60 days from the date of mailing or personal service of the notice in which to file a written request for a hearing with the Department.

(d) Default Order: If a timely request for a hearing is not received, the Contested Case Notice will become a final order denying the requested waiver pursuant to OAR 137-003-0672.

(e) Hearing Request: If a timely request for a hearing is received, the Department will refer the matter to the Office of Administrative Hearings in accordance with OAR 137-003-0515.

(f) Proposed and Final Orders: In cases in which a hearing was requested, proposed orders, exceptions, and final orders will be issued pursuant to the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.

[ED. NOTE: Forms referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 181.640, 181.644 & 183.341
Stats. Implemented: ORS 181.640, 181.644 & 183.341
Hist.: BPSST 1-2002, f. & cert. ef. 2-6-02; DPSST 1-2004, f. 1-16-04, cert. ef. 1-20-04; DPSST 5-2004, f. & cert. ef. 4-23-04; DPSST 3-2007, f. & cert. ef. 1-12-07; DPSST 10-2007, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-07; DPSST 5-2008, f. & cert. ef. 4-15-08; DPSST 21-2008, f. 12-15-08, cert. ef. 1-1-09; DPSST 6-2009, f. & cert. ef. 7-13-09; DPSST 9-2010(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-15-10 thru 4-12-11; DPSST 13-2010, f. & cert. ef. 12-23-10; DPSST 9-2011, f. & cert. ef. 6-28-11; DPSST 14-2011, f. 9-26-11, cert. ef. 10-1-11; DPSST 5-2012, f. & cert. ef. 3-26-12; DPSST 19-2012, f. & cert. ef. 8-31-12

259-008-0070

Denial/Revocation

(1) It is the responsibility of the Board to set the standards, and of the Department to uphold them, to insure the highest levels of professionalism and discipline. These standards shall be upheld at all times unless the Board determines that neither the safety of the public or respect of the profession is compromised.

Definitions

(2) For purposes of this rule, the following definitions apply:

(a) “Denial” or “Deny” means the refusal to grant a certification for mandatory grounds or discretionary disqualifying misconduct as identified in this rule, pursuant to the procedures identified in (9) of this rule.

(b) “Discretionary Disqualifying Misconduct” means misconduct identified in OAR 259-008-0070(4).

(c) “Revocation” or “Revoke” means to withdraw the certification of a public safety professional or instructor for mandatory grounds or discretionary disqualifying misconduct as identified in this rule, pursuant to the procedures identified in section (9) of this rule.

Grounds for Mandatory Denial or Revocation of Certification

(3) Mandatory Grounds for Denying or Revoking Certification of a Public Safety Professional or Instructor:

(a) The Department must deny or revoke the certification of any public safety professional or instructor after written notice and hearing, based upon a finding that:

(A) The public safety professional or instructor has been discharged for cause from employment as a public safety professional or instructor. For purposes of this rule, “discharged for cause,” means an employer-initiated termination of employment for any of the following reasons after a final determination has been made. If, after service by the Department of a Notice of Intent to Deny or Revoke Certifications (NOI), the public safety professional or instructor provides notice to the Department within the time stated in the NOI that the discharge has not become final, then the Department may stay further action pending a final determination.

(i) Dishonesty: Includes untruthfulness, dishonesty by admission or omission, deception, misrepresentation, falsification; (Comment: Conduct underlying the mandatory disqualifying misdemeanors involving these elements in Subsection (D) and the Category I offenses in section (4), is illustrative of the types of conduct falling within this definition. However, misconduct need not have resulted in a criminal conviction.)

(ii) Disregard for the Rights of Others: Includes violating the constitutional or civil rights of others, conduct demonstrating a disregard for the principles of fairness, respect for the rights of others, protecting vulnerable persons, and the fundamental duty to protect and serve the public. (Comment: Conduct underlying the Category II offenses identified in section (4) is illustrative of the types of conduct falling within this definition. However, misconduct need not have resulted in a criminal conviction.)

(iii) Gross Misconduct: means an act or failure to act that creates a danger or risk to persons, property, or to the efficient operation of the agency, recognizable as a gross deviation from the standard of care that a reasonable public safety professional or instructor would observe in a similar circumstance; (Comment: Conduct underlying the Category IV offenses identified in section (4) is illustrative of the types of conduct falling within this definition. However, misconduct need not have resulted in a criminal conviction).

(iv) Incompetence: means a demonstrated lack of ability to perform the essential tasks of a public safety professional or instructor that remedial measures have been unable to correct.

(v) Misuse of Authority: Includes abuse of public trust, abuse of authority to obtain a benefit, avoid a detriment, or harm another, and abuse under the color of office. (Comment: Conduct underlying the Category III offenses identified in section (4) is illustrative of the types of conduct falling within this definition. However, misconduct need not have resulted in a criminal conviction.)

(B) The public safety professional or instructor has been convicted in this state or any other jurisdiction of a crime designated under the law where the conviction occurred as being punishable as a felony or as a crime for which a maximum term of imprisonment of more than one year may be imposed;

(C) The public safety professional or instructor has been convicted of violating any law of this state or any other jurisdiction involving the unlawful use, possession, delivery or manufacture of a controlled substance, narcotic or dangerous drug except the Department may deny certification for a conviction of possession of less than one ounce of marijuana, which occurred prior to certification; or

(D) The public safety professional or instructor has been convicted in this state of any of the following offenses, or of their statutory counterpart(s) in any other jurisdiction, designated under the law where the conviction occurred as being punishable as a crime:

162.075 (False swearing);

162.085 (Unsworn falsification);

162.145 (Escape in the third degree);

162.175 (Unauthorized departure);

162.195 (Failure to appear in the second degree);

162.235 (Obstructing governmental or judicial administration);

162.247 (Interfering with a peace officer);

162.257 (Interfering with a firefighter or emergency medical technician);

162.295 (Tampering with physical evidence);

162.305 (Tampering with public records);

162.315 (Resisting arrest);

162.335 (Compounding);

162.365 (Criminal impersonation);

162.369 (Possession of false law enforcement identification);

162.375 (Initiating a false report);

162.385 (Giving false information to a peace officer for a citation or arrest warrant);

162.415 (Official misconduct in the first degree);

163.200 (Criminal mistreatment in the second degree);

163.454 (Custodial sexual misconduct in the second degree);

163.687 (Encouraging child sexual abuse in the third degree);

163.732 (Stalking), ;

164.045 (Theft in the second degree);

164.085 (Theft by deception);

164.095 (Theft by receiving);

164.125 (Theft of services);

164.235 (Possession of a burglary tool or theft device);

164.877 (Unlawful tree spiking; unlawful possession of substance that can damage certain wood processing equipment);

165.007 (Forgery in the second degree);

165.017 (Criminal possession of a forged instrument in the second degree);

165.037 (Criminal simulation);

165.042 (Fraudulently obtaining a signature);

165.047 (Unlawfully using slugs);

165.055 (Fraudulent use of a credit card);

165.065 (Negotiating a bad check);

165.080 (Falsifying business records);

165.095 (Misapplication of entrusted property);

165.100 (Issuing a false financial statement);

165.102 (Obtain execution of documents by deception);

165.825 (Sale of drugged horse);

166.065(1)(b) (Harassment);

166.155 (Intimidation in the second degree);

166.270 (Possession of weapons by certain felons);

166.350 (Unlawful possession of armor-piercing ammunition);

166.416 (Providing false information in connection with a transfer of a firearm);

166.418 (Improperly transferring a firearm);

166.470 (Limitations and conditions for sales of firearms);

167.007 (Prostitution);

167.075 (Exhibiting an obscene performance to a minor);

167.080 (Displaying obscene materials to minors);

167.132 (Possession of gambling records in the second degree);

167.147 (Possession of a gambling device);

167.222 (Frequenting a place where controlled substances are used);

167.262 (Adult using minor in commission of controlled substance offense);

167.320 (Animal abuse in the first degree);

167.330 (Animal neglect in the first degree);

167.332 (Prohibition against possession of domestic animal);

167.333 (Sexual assault of animal);

167.337 (Interfering with law enforcement animal);

167.355 (Involvement in animal fighting);

167.370 (Participation in dogfighting);

167.431 (Participation in cockfighting);

167.820 (Concealing the birth of an infant);

475.525 (Sale of drug paraphernalia);

475.840 (Manufacture or deliver a controlled substance);

475.860 (Unlawful delivery of marijuana);

475.864 (Unlawful possession of marijuana);

475.906 (Distribution of controlled substance to minors);

475.910 (Application of controlled substance to the body of another person);

475.912 (Unlawful delivery of imitation controlled substance);

475.914 (Unlawful acts, registrant delivering or dispensing controlled substance);

475.916 (Prohibited acts involving records and fraud);

475.918 (Falsifying drug test results);

475.920 (Providing drug test falsification equipment);

475.950 (Failure to report precursor substances transaction);

475.955 (Failure to report missing precursor substances);

475.960 (Illegally selling drug equipment);

475.965 (Providing false information on precursor substances report or record);

475.969 (Unlawful possession of phosphorus);

475.971 (Unlawful possession of anhydrous ammonia);

475.973 (Unlawful possession of ephedrine, pseudoephedrine or phenylpropanolamine; unlawful distribution);

475.975 (Unlawful possession of iodine in its elemental form);

475.976 (Unlawful possession of iodine matrix);

807.520 (False swearing to receive license);

807.620 (Giving false information to police officer);

Any offense involving any acts of domestic violence as defined in ORS 135.230.

(b) The Department must take action on a mandatory disqualifying conviction, regardless of when it occurred, unless the Department, or the Board, has previously reviewed the conviction and approved the public safety professional or instructor for certification under a prior set of standards.

Discretionary Disqualifying Misconduct as Grounds for Denying or Revoking Certification

(4) Discretionary disqualifying misconduct as Grounds for Denying or Revoking Certification(s) of a Public Safety Professional or Instructor:

(a) The Department may deny or revoke the certification of any public safety professional or instructor, after written notice, and a hearing, if requested, based upon a finding that:

(A) The public safety professional or instructor falsified any information submitted on the application for certification or on any documents submitted to the Board or Department;

(B) The public safety professional or instructor fails to meet the applicable minimum standards, minimum training or the terms and conditions established under ORS 181.640;

(C) The public safety professional or instructor has been convicted of an offense, punishable as a crime, other than a mandatory disqualifying crime listed in section (3) of this rule, in this state or any other jurisdiction. Presumptive categories have been identified for the crimes listed in subsection (4), based solely on the elements of the crime. Other categories may apply based on the conduct leading to the conviction; or

(D) A public safety professional failed to attend at least one session with a mental health professional within six months after the public safety professional was involved in using deadly physical force, as required by ORS 181.789.

(b) For purposes of this rule, discretionary disqualifying misconduct includes misconduct falling within the following categories:

(A) Category I: Dishonesty: Includes untruthfulness, dishonesty by admission or omission, deception, misrepresentation, falsification; (Comment: Conduct underlying the mandatory disqualifying misdemeanors involving these elements in Subsection (D) and the Category I offenses in section (4), is illustrative of the types of conduct falling within this definition. However, misconduct need not have resulted in a criminal conviction.)

(B) Category II: Disregard for the Rights of Others: Includes violating the constitutional or civil rights of others, and conduct demonstrating a disregard for the principles of fairness, respect for the rights of others, protecting vulnerable persons, and the fundamental duty to protect and serve the public. (Comment: Conduct underlying the Category II offenses identified in section (4) is illustrative of the types of conduct falling within this definition. However, misconduct need not have resulted in criminal conviction.)

(C) Category III: Misuse of Authority: Includes abuse of public trust, obtaining a benefit, avoidance of detriment, or harming another, and abuses under the color of office. (Comment: Conduct underlying the Category III offenses identified in section (4) is illustrative of the types of conduct falling within this definition. However, misconduct need not have resulted in a criminal conviction.)

(D) Category IV: Gross Misconduct: Means an act or failure to act that creates a danger or risk to persons, property, or to the efficient operation of the agency, recognizable as a gross deviation from the standard of care that a reasonable public safety professional or instructor would observe in a similar circumstance; (Comment: Conduct underlying the Category IV offenses identified in section (4) is illustrative of the types of conduct falling within this definition. However, misconduct need not have resulted in a criminal conviction.)

(E) Category V: Misconduct: Misconduct includes conduct that violates the law, practices or standards generally followed in the Oregon public safety profession. NOTE: It is the intent of this rule that “Contempt of Court” meets the definition of Misconduct within this category; (Comment: Conduct underlying the Category V offenses identified in section (4) is illustrative of the types of conduct falling within this definition. However, misconduct need not have resulted in a criminal conviction.) or

(F) Category VI: Insubordination: Includes a refusal by a public safety professional or instructor to comply with a rule or order, where the order was reasonably related to the orderly, efficient, or safe operation of the agency, and where the public safety professional’s or instructor’s refusal to comply with the rule or order constitutes a substantial breach of that person’s duties. (Note: There are no category VI crimes.)

(c) For discretionary disqualifying misconduct, the applicable category will be determined based on the facts of each case. Discretionary disqualifying misconduct under (a)(C) includes, but is not limited to, the following list, which identifies the applicable category for each listed discretionary offense, based on the elements of the crime:

97.931 (Registration of Salesperson for Endowment Care Cemeteries, Pre-construction Sales and Prearrangement Sales) — Category V;

97.933 (Certification of Provider of Prearrangement or Preconstruction) — Category V;

97.937 (Deposit of Trust Funds made by Endowment Care Cemeteries) — Category V;

97.941 (Prearrangement or Preconstruction Trust Fund Deposits) — Category V;

97.990(4) (Maintaining a Nuisance) — Category V;

162.405 (Official Misconduct in the Second Degree) — Category III;

162.425 (Misuse of Confidential Information) — Category III;

162.455 (Interfering with Legislative Operations) — Category V;

162.465 (Unlawful Legislative Lobbying) — Category I;

163.160 (Assault in the Fourth Degree) — Category II;

163.187 (Strangulation) — Category II;

163.190 (Menacing) — Category II;

163.195 (Recklessly Endangering Another Person) — Category IV;

163.212 (Unlawful Use of Stun Gun, Tear Gas or Mace in the Second Degree) — Category IV;

163.415 (Sexual Abuse in the Third Degree) — Category II;

163.435 (Contributing to the Sexual Delinquency of a Minor) — Category II;

163.445 (Sexual Misconduct) — Category II;

163.465 (Public Indecency) — Category II;

163.467 (Private Indecency) — Category II;

163.545 (Child Neglect in the Second Degree) — Category IV;

163.693 (Failure to Report Child Pornography) — Category IV;

163.575 (Endangering the Welfare of a Minor) — Category III;

163.700 (Invasion of Personal Privacy) — Category II;

163.709 (Unlawful Directing of Light from a Laser Pointer) — Category IV;

164.043 (Theft in the Third Degree) — Category V;

164.132 (Unlawful Distribution of Cable Equipment) — Category V;

164.140 (Criminal Possession of Rented or Leased Personal Property) — Category V;

164.162 (Mail Theft or Receipt of Stolen Mail) — Category I;

164.243 (Criminal Trespass in the Second Degree by a Guest) — Category V;

164.245 (Criminal Trespass in the Second Degree) — Category V;

164.255 (Criminal Trespass in the First Degree) — Category V;

164.265 (Criminal Trespass While in Possession of a Firearm) — Category IV;

164.272 (Unlawful Entry into a Motor Vehicle) — Category V;

164.278 (Criminal Trespass at Sports Event) — Category V;

164.335 (Reckless Burning) — Category IV,

164.345 (Criminal Mischief in the Third Degree) — Category V;

164.354 (Criminal Mischief in the Second Degree) — Category V;

164.373 (Tampering with Cable Television Equipment) — Category V;

164.377 (Computer Crime) — Category V;

164.775 (Deposit of Trash Within 100 Yards of Water) — Category V;

164.785 (Placing Offensive Substances in waters/on highways or property) — Category IV;

164.805 (Offensive Littering) — Category V;

164.813 (Unlawful Cutting and Transporting of Special Forest Products) — Category V;

164.815 (Unlawful Transport of Hay) — Category V;

164.825 (Cutting and Transport of Coniferous Trees without Permit/Bill of Sale) — Category V;

164.845 (FTA on Summons for ORS 164.813 or 164.825) — Category V;

164.863 (Unlawful Transport of Meat Animal Carcasses) — Category V;

164.865 (Unlawful Sound Recording) — Category V;

164.875 (Unlawful Video Tape Recording) — Category V;

164.887 (Interference with Agricultural Operations) — Category II;

165.107 (Failing to Maintain a Metal Purchase Record) — Category V;

165.109 (Failing to Maintain a Cedar Purchase Record) — Category V;

165.540 (Obtaining Contents of Communications) — Category V;

165.555 (Unlawful Telephone Solicitation) — Category V;

165.570 (Improper Use of Emergency Reporting System) — Category IV;

165.572 (Interference with Making a Report) — Category II;

165.577 (Cellular Counterfeiting in the Third Degree) — Category I;

165.805 (Misrepresentation of Age by a Minor) — Category I;

166.025 (Disorderly Conduct in the Second Degree) — Category IV;

166.027 (Disorderly Conduct in the First Degree) — Category IV;

166.075 (Abuse of Venerated Objects) — Category II;

166.076 (Abuse of a Memorial to the Dead) — Category II;

166.090 (Telephonic Harassment) — Category II;

166.095 (Misconduct with Emergency Telephone Calls) — Category IV;

166.155 (Intimidation in the Second Degree) — Category II,

166.180 (Negligently Wounding Another) — Category IV;

166.190 (Pointing a Firearm at Another) — Category IV;

166.240 (Carrying a Concealed Weapon) — Category V;

166.250 (Unlawful Possession of a Firearm) — Category V;

166.320 (Setting of a Springgun or Setgun) — Category IV;

166.385 (Possession of Hoax Destructive Device) — Category IV;

166.425 (Unlawful Purchase of Firearm) — Category I;

166.427 (Register of Transfers of Used Firearms) — Category V;

166.480 (Sale or Gift of Explosives to Children) — Category IV;

166.635 (Discharging Weapon or Throwing Object at Trains) — Category IV;

166.638 (Discharging Weapon Across Airport Operational Surfaces) — Category IV;

166.645 (Hunting in Cemeteries) — Category V;

166.649 (Throwing Object off Overpass in the Second Degree) — Category IV;

167.122 (Unlawful Gambling in the Second Degree) — Category V;

167.312 (Research and Animal Interference) — Category II;

167.315 (Animal Abuse in the Second Degree) — Category IV;

167.325 (Animal Neglect in the Second Degree) — Category IV;

167.340 (Animal Abandonment) –— Category IV;

167.351 (Trading in Nonambulatory Livestock) — Category V;

167.352 (Interfering with Assistance, Search and Rescue or Therapy Animal) — Category IV;

167.385 (Unauthorized Use of Livestock Animal) — Category II;

167.388 (Interference with Livestock Production) — Category II;

167.390 (Commerce in Fur of Domestic Cats and Dogs) — Category V;

167.502 (Sale of Certain Items at Unused Property Market) — Category V;

167.506 (Record Keeping Requirements) — Category V;

167.808 (Unlawful Possession of Inhalants) — Category IV;

167.810 (Creating a Hazard) — Category IV;

167.822 (Improper Repair Vehicle Inflatable Restraint System) — Category IV;

411.320 (Disclosure and Use of Public Assistance Records) — Category II;

468.922 (Unlawful disposal, storage or treatment of hazardous waste in the second degree) — Category V;

468.929 (Unlawful transport of hazardous waste in the second degree) — Category V;

468.936 (Unlawful Air Pollution in the Second Degree) — Category V;

468.943 (Unlawful Water Pollution in the Second Degree) — Category V;

468.956 (Refusal to Produce Material Subpoenaed by the Commission) — Category V;

471.410 (Providing Liquor to Person under 21 or to Intoxicated Person) — Category IV;

Chapter 496 – 498 (When treated as a misdemeanor crime) — Category based on the elements of the specific crime;

609.341 (Permit Requirement for Keeping of Exotic Animals; Breeding of Animals) — Category V;

609.405 (Requirement for Destroying Dog or Cat) — Category V;

609.505 (Unlawfully Obtaining Dog or Cat) — Category V;

609.520(c) (Animal Dealer Failing to Turn Over Dog or Cat) — Category V;

609.805 (Misrepresentation of Pedigree; Mutilation of Certificate or Proof of Pedigree) — Category I;

609.990(3)(a) (Violation of ORS 609.098 — Maintaining a Dangerous Dog) — Category IV;

717.200 to 717.320 (Any violation) — Category V;

803.225 (Failure to Designate Replica..Vehicle in Title or Registration Application) — Category I;

807.430 (Misuse of Identification Card) — Category I;

807.510 (Transfer of documents for the purpose of misrepresentation) — Category I;

807.530 (False Application for License) — Category I;

807.570 (Failure to Carry or Present License) — Category V;

807.580 (Using Invalid License) — Category I;

807.590 (Permitting Misuse of License) — Category I;

807.600 (Using Another’s License) — Category I;

811.060 (Vehicular Assault of Bicyclist or Pedestrian) — Category V;

811.140 (Reckless Driving) — Category IV;

811.172 (Improperly Disposing of Human Waste) — Category V;

811.182 (Criminal Driving While Suspended or Revoked) — Category V;

811.231 (Reckless Endangerment of Highway Workers) — Category IV;

811.540 (Fleeing or Attempt to Elude a Police Officer) — Category IV;

811.700 (Failure to Perform Duties of Driver when Property is Damaged) — Category V;

811.740 (False Accident Report) — Category I; and

813.010 (Driving Under the Influence of Intoxicants) — Category IV.

830.035(2) (Fleeing; Attempts to Elude) — Category IV;

830.053 (False or Fraudulent Report of Theft of Boat) — Category I;

830.315(1) (Reckless Operation) — Category IV;

830.325 (Operation a Boat while Under the Influence of Intoxicating Liquor or Controlled Substance) — Category IV;

830.383 (Person Required to Remedy Especially Hazardous Condition) — Category V;

830.460(2) (Prohibited Activities — Operating a Vessel that Fails to Comply with Equipment Requirements) — Category V;

830.460(3) (Prohibited Activities — Operating a Vessel without Liability Protection) — Category V;

830.475(1) (Failure to Perform the Duties of an Operator at Accident) — Category V;

830.730 (False Information) — Category I;

830.909 (Abandoning Boat, Floating Home, or Boathouse) — Category V;

830.955(1) (Prohibition of Installation of Submersible Polystyrene Device) — Category V;

830.992 (Purchase of a Boat or Equipment from which Hull or Component Identification Number Removed) — Category V;

830.994 (Operates a Boat in Violation of a Court Order) — Category;

Initial Periods of Ineligibility

(d) Upon determination to proceed with the denial or revocation of a public safety professional’s or instructor’s certification based on discretionary disqualifying misconduct identified in subsection (a), an initial minimum period of ineligibility to apply for certification will be determined based upon the category of misconduct (i.e., Dishonesty, Disregard for Rights of Others, Misuse of Authority, Gross Misconduct, Misconduct or Insubordination).

(e) Following review and recommendation by a Policy Committee, the Board will determine the initial minimum period of ineligibility for discretionary disqualifying misconduct identified in subsection (a) from the time frame identified below for each category of discretionary disqualifying misconduct:

(A) Category I: Dishonesty (5 years to Lifetime).

(B) Category II: Disregard for Rights of Others (5 years to 15 years).

(C) Category III: Misuse of Authority (5 years to 10 years).

(D) Category IV: Gross Misconduct (5 years to 10 years).

(E) Category V: Misconduct (3 years to 7 years).

(F) Category VI: Insubordination (3 years to 7 years).

Eligibility to Reapply; Ineligibility Periods

(5) A person is not eligible to reapply for training or certification if the person had training or certification denied or revoked for:

(a) Mandatory grounds identified in section (3) of this rule; or

(b) Discretionary Disqualifying Misconduct identified in section (4) of this rule that is determined to be a Category I lifetime disqualifier.

(6) Eligibility to reapply for certification:

(a) In determining the initial minimum period of ineligibility within any category for discretionary disqualifying misconduct listed in section (4) of this rule, the Board will take into consideration any mitigating or aggravating factors, subject to the provisions of section (9) of this rule.

(b) The initial minimum period of ineligibility will be included in any Final Order of the Department.

(c) Any subsequent eligibility to apply for certification will be determined by the Board, after Policy Committee review, subject to the provisions of section (11) of this rule.

Guidelines for Denial or Revocation Based on Discretionary Disqualifying Misconduct

(7) In determining whether to take action on a conviction, the Department must use the following guidelines:

(a) In making a decision on a discretionary denial or revocation, the Department will consider the implementation dates relating to new mandatory conviction notification requirements adopted in 2003 and statutory changes dealing with lifetime disqualifier convictions for public safety officers adopted in 2001.

(b) The Department will not take action on a conviction constituting discretionary disqualifying misconduct that occurred prior to January 1, 2001. However, the Department may consider such conviction as evidence that a public safety professional or instructor does not meet the established moral fitness guidelines.

(c) The Department may take action on any conviction constituting discretionary disqualifying misconduct that occurred after January 1, 2001.

(d) The Board may reconsider any mandatory conviction which subsequently becomes a conviction constituting discretionary disqualifying misconduct, upon the request of the public safety professional or instructor.

(e) The length of ineligibility for training or certification based on a conviction begins on the date of conviction.

(f) The Department will not take action against a public safety professional, instructor, or agency for failing to report, prior to January 1, 2003, a conviction that constitutes discretionary disqualifying misconduct.

(g) The Department may take action against a public safety professional, instructor, or agency for failing to report, after January 1, 2003, any conviction that constitutes discretionary disqualifying misconduct.

Procedure for Denial or Revocation of a Certificate

(8) Scope of Revocation. Whenever the Department revokes the certification of any public safety professional or instructor under the provisions of OAR 259-008-0070, the revocation will encompass all public safety certificates, except fire certification(s), the Department has issued to that person.

(9) Denial and Revocation Procedure.

(a) Agency Initiated Review: When the entity utilizing a public safety professional or instructor requests that a public safety professional’s or instructor’s certification be denied or revoked, it must submit in writing to the Department the reason for the requested denial or revocation and all factual information supporting the request.

(b) Department Initiated Review: Upon receipt of factual information from any source, and pursuant to ORS 181.662, the Department may request that the public safety professional’s or instructor’s certification be denied or revoked.

(c) Department Staff Review: When the Department receives information, from any source, that a public safety professional or instructor may not meet the established standards for Oregon public safety professionals or instructors, the Department will review the request and the supporting factual information to determine if the request for denial or revocation meets statutory and administrative rule requirements.

(A) If the reason for the request does not meet the statutory and administrative rule requirements for denial or revocation the Department will notify the requestor.

(B) If the reason for the request does meet statutory and administrative rule requirements but is not supported by adequate factual information, the Department will request further information from the employer or conduct its own investigation of the matter.

(C) If the Department determines that a public safety professional or instructor may have engaged in discretionary disqualifying misconduct listed in subsection (4), the case may be presented to the Board, through a Policy Committee.

(D) The Department will seek input from the affected public safety professional or instructor, allowing him or her to provide, in writing, information for the Policy Committee and Board’s review.

(E) In misconduct cases in which there has been an arbitrator’s opinion related to the public safety professional’s or instructor’s employment, the Department will proceed as follows:

(i) If the arbitrator’s opinion finds that underlying facts supported the allegations of misconduct, the department will proceed as identified in paragraphs (A) through (D) of this subsection.

(ii) If the arbitrator has ordered employment reinstatement after a discharge for cause without a finding related to whether the misconduct occurred, the Department will proceed as identified in paragraphs (A) through (D) of this subsection.

(iii) If the arbitrator’s opinion finds that underlying facts did not support the allegation(s) of misconduct, the Department will proceed as identified in paragraph (A) of this subsection and administratively close the matter.

(d) Policy Committee and Board Review: In making a decision to authorize initiation of proceedings under subsection (e) of this rule, based on discretionary disqualifying misconduct, the Policy Committees and Board will consider mitigating and aggravating circumstances, including, but not limited to, the following:

(A) When the misconduct occurred in relation to the public safety professional’s or instructor’s employment in public safety (i.e., before, during after);

(B) If the misconduct resulted in a conviction:

(i) Whether it was a misdemeanor or violation;

(ii) The date of the conviction(s);

(iii) Whether the public safety professional or instructor was a minor at the time and tried as an adult;

(iv) Whether the public safety professional or instructor served time in prison/jail and, if so, the length of incarceration;

(v) Whether restitution was ordered, and whether the public safety professional or instructor met all obligations;

(vi) Whether the public safety professional or instructor has ever been on parole or probation. If so, the date on which the parole/probation period expired or is set to expire; and

(vii) Whether the public safety professional or instructor has more than one conviction and if so, over what period of time;

(C) Whether the public safety professional or instructor has engaged in the same misconduct more than once, and if so, over what period of time;

(D) Whether the actions of the public safety professional or instructor reflect adversely on the profession, or would cause a reasonable person to have substantial doubts about the public safety professional’s or instructor’s honesty, fairness, respect for the rights of others, or for the laws of the state or the nation;

(E) Whether the misconduct involved domestic violence;

(F) Whether the public safety professional or instructor self-reported the misconduct;

(G) Whether the conduct adversely reflects on the fitness of the public safety professional or instructor to perform as a public safety professional or instructor;

(H) Whether the conduct renders the public safety professional or instructor otherwise unfit to perform their duties because the agency or public has lost confidence in the public safety professional or instructor; and

(I) What the public safety professional’s or instructor’s physical or emotional condition was at the time of the conduct.

(e) Initiation of Proceedings: Upon determination that the reason for denial or revocation is supported by factual data meeting the statutory and administrative rule requirements, a contested case notice will be prepared and served on the public safety professional or instructor.

(f) Contested Case Notice:

(A) All contested case notices will be prepared in accordance with the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules or Procedures adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.

(B) In discretionary cases heard by a policy committee, the contested case notice will be served on the public safety professional or instructor prior to Board review. If the Board disapproves the policy committee’s recommendation, the Department will withdraw the Contested Case Notice.

(g) Response Time:

(A) A party who has been served with a “Contested Case Notice of Intent to Deny Certification” has 60 days from the date of mailing or personal service of the notice in which to file a written request for a hearing with the Department.

(B) A party who has been served with the “Contested Case Notice of Intent to Revoke Certification” has 20 days from the date of mailing or personal service of the notice in which to file a written request for hearing with the Department.

(h) Default Order: If a timely request for a hearing is not received, the Contested Case Notice will become a final order denying or revoking certification pursuant to OAR 137-003-0672.

(i) Hearing Request: If a timely request for a hearing is received, the Department will refer the matter to the Office of Administrative Hearings in accordance with OAR 137-003-0515.

(j) Proposed and Final Orders:

(A) In cases in which a hearing is requested, proposed orders, exceptions, and final orders will be issued pursuant to the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedures adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.

(B) Department-proposed amendments to a proposed order issued by an Administrative Law Judge in a case that was originally heard by a policy committee must be considered and approved by the policy committee that originally reviewed the case before a final order can be issued.

(k) Stipulated Order Revoking Certification: The Department may enter a stipulated order revoking the certification of a public safety professional or instructor upon the person’s voluntary agreement to terminate an administrative proceeding to revoke a certification, or to relinquish a certification, under the terms and conditions outlined in the stipulated order.

Appeals, Reapplication, and Eligibility Determinations

(10) Appeal Procedure. A public safety professional or instructor, aggrieved by the findings and Order of the Department may, as provided in ORS 183.480, file an appeal with the Court of Appeals from the final Order of the Department.

(11) Reapplication Process.

(a) Any public safety professional or instructor whose certification has been denied or revoked pursuant to section (4) of this rule, may reapply for certification within the applicable timeframes described in sections (4) through (6) of this rule. The initial minimum ineligibility period will begin on the date an Order of the Department denying or revoking certification becomes final. The initial minimum ineligibility period will cease when the applicable timeframe stated in the Order has been satisfied.

(b) Any public safety professional or instructor whose certification has been denied or revoked based on discretionary disqualifying misconduct may not reapply for certification until:

(A) The initial minimum period of ineligibility stated in an Order of the Department denying or revoking certification has been satisfied;

(i) If the initial period of ineligibility for the individual was for a period of less than the maximum period identified in section (4) of this rule, and the Board determines that an individual must remain ineligible to apply for certification, then the individual may not reapply for certification under the provisions of this rule until after the maximum initial period of ineligibility identified in (4) of this rule has been satisfied.

(ii) If the individual has satisfied the maximum initial period of ineligibility and the Board determines that an individual must remain ineligible to apply for certification, then the individual may not submit any further requests for an eligibility determination, and the original denial or revocation remains permanent.

(B) A written request for an eligibility determination has been submitted to the Department and a Policy Committee has recommended that a public safety professional’s or instructor’s eligibility to apply for public safety or instructor certification be restored and the Board has upheld the recommendation;

(i) A request for an eligibility determination should include documentation or information that supports the public safety professional’s or instructor’s request for eligibility to apply for certification.

(ii) In considering a request for an eligibility determination, the Policy Committee and the Board may consider mitigating and aggravating circumstances identified in Section 9(d) of this rule.

(iii) After reviewing a written request for an eligibility determination, the Board, through a Policy Committee, may determine that the individual’s eligibility to apply for certification be restored if the criteria for certification have been met; or determine that the factors that originally resulted in denial or revocation have not been satisfactorily mitigated and the individual must remain ineligible to apply for certification.

(C) The public safety professional or instructor is employed or utilized by a public safety agency; and

(D) All requirements for certification have been met.

Stat. Auth.: ORS 181.640, 181.661, 181.662, 181.664 & 183.341
Stats. Implemented: ORS 181.640, 181.661, 181.662 & 181.664
Hist.: PS 12, f. & ef. 12-19-77; PS 1-1979, f. 10-1-79, ef. 10-3-79; PS 1-1980(Temp), f. & ef. 6-26-80; PS 2-1980, f. & ef. 12-8-80; PS 1-1981, f. 9-26-81, ef. 11-2-81; PS 1-1983, f. & ef. 12-15-83; PS 1-1985, f. & ef. 4-24-85; Renumbered from 259-010-0055, PS 1-1990, f. & cert. ef. 2-7-90; PS 2-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-27-95; PS 2-1996, f. 5-15-96, cert. ef. 5-20-96; PS 10-1997(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-5-97; BPSST 1-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98; BPSST 2-1998(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 5-6-98 thru 6-30-98; BPSST 3-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98; BPSST 6-2000, f. & cert. ef. 9-29-00; BPSST 14-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-26-01 thru 4-5-02; BPSST 5-2002(Temp) f. 4-3-02, cert. ef. 4-6-02 thru 8-1-02; BPSST 16-2002, f. & cert. ef. 7-5-02; BPSST 22-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-18-02; DPSST 7-2003, f. & cert. ef. 4-11-03; DPSST 7-2004, f. & cert. ef. 4-23-04; DPSST 10-2006, f. & cert. ef. 7-6-06; DPSST 16-2008, f. & cert. ef. 10-15-08; DPSST 21-2008, f. 12-15-08, cert. ef. 1-1-09; DPSST 11-2011, f. & cert. ef. 7-1-11; DPSST 11-2012, f. & cert. ef. 4-24-12; DPSST 19-2012, f. & cert. ef. 8-31-12

259-009-0070

Denial/Revocation

(1) It is the responsibility of the Board to set the standards, and of the Department to uphold them, to insure the highest levels of professionalism and discipline. These standards shall be upheld at all times unless the Board determines that neither the safety of the public or respect of the profession is compromised.

Definitions

(2) For purposes of this rule, the following definitions will apply:

(a) “Denial” or “Deny” means the refusal to grant a fire service certification for mandatory grounds or discretionary disqualifying misconduct as identified in this rule, pursuant to the procedures identified in (9) of this rule.

(b) “Discretionary Conviction” means a conviction identified in OAR 259-009-0070(6).

(c) “Discretionary Disqualifying Misconduct” means misconduct identified in OAR 259-009-0070(4).

(d) “Revocation” or “Revoke” means to withdraw the certification of a fire service professional or instructor for mandatory grounds or discretionary disqualifying misconduct as identified in this rule, pursuant to the procedures identified in subsection (9) of this rule.

Grounds for Mandatory Denial or Revocation of Certification

(3) Mandatory Grounds for Denying or Revoking Certification of a Fire Service Professional or Instructor:

(a) The Department must deny or revoke the certification of any fire service professional or instructor, after written notice, and a hearing if requested, based upon a finding that:

(A) The fire service professional or instructor has been convicted in this state of a crime listed in ORS 137.700 or in any other jurisdiction of a crime that, if committed in this state would constitute a crime listed in 137.700. Those crimes are:

163.095 Attempted Aggravated Murder;

163.115 Attempted Murder;

163.115 Murder;

163.118 Manslaughter in the First Degree;

163.125 Manslaughter in the Second Degree;

163.149 Aggravated Vehicular Homicide;

163.175 Assault in the Second Degree;

163.185 Assault in the First Degree;

163.225 Kidnapping in the Second Degree;

163.235 Kidnapping in the First Degree;

163.365 Rape in the Second Degree;

163.375 Rape in the First Degree;

163.395 Sodomy in the Second Degree;

163.405 Sodomy in the First Degree;

163.408 Sexual Penetration in the Second Degree;

163.411 Sexual Penetration in the First Degree;

163.427 Sexual Abuse in the First Degree;

163.670 Using a Child in a Display of Sexually Explicit Conduct;

164.325 Arson in the First Degree (See exception under OAR 259-009-0070(4));

164.405 Robbery in the Second Degree;

164.415 Robbery in the First Degree;

167.017 Compelling Prostitution.

(B) The fire service professional or instructor has been discharged for cause from employment as a fire service professional or instructor.

(b) For purposes of this rule, “discharged for cause”, means an employer initiated termination of employment for any of the following reasons after a final determination has been made. If, after service by the Department of a Notice of Intent to Deny or Revoke Certifications (NOI), the fire service professional or instructor provides notice to the Department within the time stated in the NOI that the discharge has not become final, then the Department may stay further action pending a final determination.

(A) Dishonesty: Includes untruthfulness, dishonesty by admission or omission, deception, misrepresentation, falsification;

(B) Disregard for the Rights of Others: Includes violating the constitutional or civil rights of others, conduct demonstrating a disregard for the principles of fairness, respect for the rights of others, protecting vulnerable persons, and the fundamental duty to protect and serve the public.

(C) Gross Misconduct means an act or failure to act that creates a danger or risk to persons, property, or to the efficient operation of the agency, recognizable as a gross deviation from the standard of care that a reasonable fire service professional or instructor would observe in a similar circumstance;

(D) Incompetence: means a demonstrated lack of ability to perform the essential tasks of a fire service professional or instructor that remedial measures have been unable to correct.

(E) Misuse of Authority: Includes abuse of public trust, abuse of authority to obtain a benefit, avoid a detriment, or harm another, and abuse under the color of office.

Discretionary Disqualifying Misconduct as Grounds for Denying or Revoking Certification

(4) Discretionary disqualifying misconduct as Grounds for Denying or Revoking Certification(s) of a Fire Service Professional or Instructor:

(a) The Department may deny or revoke the certification of any fire service professional or instructor, after written notice, and a hearing, if requested, based upon a finding that:

(A) The fire service professional or instructor falsified any information submitted on the application for certification or on any documents submitted to the Board or Department;

(B) The fire service professional or instructor has been convicted of an offense listed in subsection (4)(c), punishable as a crime, other than a mandatory disqualifying crime listed in section (3) of this rule, in this state or any other jurisdiction.

(b) For purposes of this rule, the Department, through the Fire Policy Committee and Board, has defined core values that are integral to the fire service profession. These values are:

(A) Category I: Honesty. Honesty includes straightforwardness of conduct; integrity, adherence to the facts; freedom from subterfuge or duplicity; truthfulness and sincerity.

(B) Category II: Professionalism. Professionalism includes the conduct, aims, or qualities that characterize or mark a profession or a professional person; extreme competence in an occupation or pursuit.

(C) Category III: Justice. Justice includes just treatment, the quality or characteristics of being just, impartial, or fair.

(c) Pursuant to ORS 181.662(3)(b), the Department has determined that, in the absence of a determination to the contrary by the Fire Policy Committee and Board, a Fire Service Professional or Instructor who has been convicted of the following crimes has violated the core values of the fire service profession and may not be fit to receive or hold certification:

162.015 (Bribe Giving) — Category III;

162.025 (Bribe Receiving) — Category III;

162.065 (Perjury) — Category I;

162.117 (Public Investment Fraud) — Category I;

162.155 (Escape in the Second Degree) — Category II;

162.165 (Escape in the First Degree) — Category II;

162.185 (Supplying Contraband) — Category II;

162.205 (Failure to Appear in the First Degree) — Category II;

162.265 (Bribing a Witness) — Category III;

162.275 (Bribe Receiving by a Witness) — Category III;

162.285 (Tampering with a Witness) — Category III;

162.305 (Tampering with Public Records) — Category III;

162.325 (Hindering Prosecution) — Category III;

162.355 (Simulating Legal Process) — Category III;

162.365 (Criminal Impersonation) — Category I;

162.367 (Criminal Impersonation of a Peace Officer) — Category I;

162.415 (Official Misconduct in the First Degree) — Category II;

163.145 (Criminally Negligent Homicide) — Category III;

163.160 (Assault in the Fourth Degree) — Category III;

163.165 (Assault in the Third Degree) — Category III;

163.205 (Criminal Mistreatment in the First Degree) — Category III;

163.207 (Female Genital Mutilation) — Category III;

163.208 (Assaulting a Public Safety Officer) — Category III;

163.213 (Unlawful Use of an Electrical Stun Gun, Tear Gas or Mace in the First Degree) — Category II;

163.245 (Custodial Interference in the Second Degree) — Category III;

163.257 (Custodial Interference in the First Degree) — Category III;

163.275 (Coercion) — Category III;

163.355 (Rape in the Third Degree) — Category III;

163.425 (Sexual Abuse in the Second Degree) — Category III;

163.465 (Public Indecency) — Category III;

163.515 (Bigamy) — Category III;

163.525 (Incest) — Category III;

163.535 (Abandonment of a Child) — Category III;

163.537 (Buying or Selling a Person Under 18 years of age) — Category III;

163.547 (Child Neglect in the First Degree) — Category III;

163.555 (Criminal Non-Support) — Category III;

163.684 (Encouraging Child Sexual Abuse in the First Degree) — Category III;

163.686 (Encouraging Child Sexual Abuse in the Second Degree) — Category III;

163.688 (Possession of Materials Depicting Sexually Explicit Conduct of a Child in the Second Degree) — Category III;

163.689 (Possession of Materials Depicting Sexually Explicit Conduct of a Child in the Second Degree) — Category III;

163.732 (Stalking) — Category III;

163.750 (Violating Court’s Stalking Protective Order) — Category III;

164.045 (Theft in the Second Degree) — Category I;

164.055 (Theft in the First Degree) — Category I;

164.057 (Aggravated Theft in the First Degree) — Category I;

164.075 (Theft by Extortion) — Category I;

164.125 (Theft of Services: by Deception) — Category I;

164.135 (Unauthorized Use of a Vehicle) — Category I;

164.140 (Criminal Possession of Rented or Leased Personal Property: felony only) — Category I;

164.170 (Laundering a Monetary Instrument) — Category I;

164.172 (Engaging in a Financial Transaction in Property Derived from Unlawful Activity) — Category I;

164.215 (Burglary in the Second Degree) — Category III;

164.225 (Burglary in the First Degree) — Category III;

164.235 (Possession of a Burglary Tool or Theft Device) — Category III;

164.315 (Arson in the Second Degree) — Category II;

164.325 (Arson in the First Degree — If not a conviction under ORS 137.700) — Category II;

164.365 (Criminal Mischief in the First Degree) — Category III;

164.377 (Computer Crime) — Category III;

164.395 (Robbery in the Third Degree) — Category III;

164.868 (Unlawful Labeling of a Sound Recording) — Category III;

164.869 (Unlawful Recording of a Live Performance) — Category III;

164.872 (Unlawful Labeling of a Videotape Recording) — Category III;

164.885 (Endangering Aircraft) — Category II;

164.889 (Interference with Agricultural Research) — Category III;

165.013 (Forgery in the First Degree) — Category I;

165.022 (Criminal Possession of a Forged Instrument in the First Degree) — Category I;

165.032 (Criminal Possession of a Forgery Device) — Category I;

165.055 (Fraudulent Use of a Credit Card: Felony Only) — Category I;

165.065 (Negotiating a Bad Check) — Category I;

165.070 (Possessing Fraudulent Communications Device) — Category I;

165.074 (Unlawful Factoring of Payment Card Transaction) — CategoryI;

165.085 (Sports Bribery) — Category III;

165.090 (Sports Bribe Receiving) — Category III;

165.579 (Cellular Counterfeiting in the Second Degree) — Category III;

165.581 (Cellular Counterfeiting in the First Degree) — Category III;

165.692 (Making False Claim for Health Care Payment) — Category I;

165.800 (Identity Theft) — Category I;

165.810 (Unlawful Possession of a Personal Identification Device) — Category I;

165.813 (Unlawful Possession of Fictitious Identification) — Category I;

166.005 (Treason) — Category II;

166.015 (Riot) — Category II;

166.085 (Abuse of Corpse in the Second Degree) — Category II;

166.087 (Abuse of Corpse in the First Degree) — Category II;

166.155 (Intimidation in the Second Degree) — Category III;

166.165 (Intimidation in the First Degree) — Category III;

166.220 (Unlawful Use of Weapon) — Category I;

166.270 (Possession of Weapons by Certain Felons: Felony only) — Category II;

166.275 (Possession of Weapons by Inmates of Institutions) — Category II;

166.370 (Possession of Firearm or Dangerous Weapon in Public Building or Court Facility; Exceptions; Discharging Firearm at School) — Category II;

166.382 (Possession of Destructive Device Prohibited) — Category II;

166.384 (Unlawful Manufacture of Destructive Device) — Category II;

166.429 (Firearms Used in Felony) — Category II;

166.438 (Transfer of Firearms at Gun Shows: Felony Only) — Category II;

166.450 (Obliteration or Change of Identification Number on Firearms) — Category II;

166.642 (Felon in Possession of Body Armor) — Category II;

166.643 (Unlawful Possession of Body Armor) — Category II;

166.649 (Throwing an Object Off an Overpass in the Second Degree) — Category III;

166.651 (Throwing an Object Off an Overpass in the First Degree) — Category III;

166.660 (Unlawful Paramilitary Activity) — Category III;

166.720 (Racketeering Activity Unlawful) — Category II;

167.012 (Promoting Prostitution) — Category III;

167.062 (Sadomasochistic Abuse or Sexual Conduct in Live Show: Felony Only) — Category III;

167.164 (Possession of Gray Machine) — Category I;

167.212 (Tampering with Drug Records) — Category I;

167.262 (Adult Using Minor in Commission of Controlled Substance Offense: Felony Only) — Category III;

167.322 (Aggravated Animal Abuse in the First Degree) — Category III;

167.339 (Assaulting Law Enforcement Animal) — Category III;

475.840 (Prohibited Acts Generally: Manufacture or Deliver a Controlled Substance) — Category II;

475.846 (Unlawful Manufacture of Heroin) — Category II;

475.848 (Unlawful Manufacture of Heroin Within 1,000 Feet of School) — Category III;

475.850 (Unlawful Delivery of Heroin) — Category II;

475.852 (Unlawful Delivery of Heroin Within 1,000 Feet of School) — Category III;

475.854 (Unlawful Possession of Heroin) — Category II;

475.856 (Unlawful Manufacture of Marijuana) — Category II;

475.858 (Unlawful Manufacture of Marijuana Within 1,000 Feet of School) — Category III;

475.860 (Unlawful Delivery of Marijuana: Felony only) — Category II;

475.862 (Unlawful Delivery of Marijuana Within 1,000 Feet of School) — Category III;

475.864 (Unlawful Possession of Marijuana: Felony only) — Category II;

475.866 (Unlawful Manufacture of 3,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (Ecstasy)) — Category II;

475.868 (Unlawful Manufacture of 3,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (Ecstasy) Within 1,000 Feet of School) — Category III;

475.870 (Unlawful Delivery of 3,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (Ecstasy)) — Category II;

475.872 (Unlawful Delivery of 3.4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (Ecstasy) Within 1,000 Feet of School) — Category II;

475.874 (Unlawful Possession of 3.4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (Ecstasy)) — Category II;

475.876 (Unlawful Manufacture of Cocaine) — Category II;

475.878 (Unlawful Manufacture of Cocaine Within 1,000 Feet of School) — Category III;

475.880 (Unlawful Delivery of Cocaine) — Category II;

475.882 (Unlawful Delivery of Cocaine Within 1,000 Feet of School) — Category III;

475.884 (Unlawful Possession of Cocaine) — Category II;

475.886 (Unlawful Manufacture of Methamphetamine) — Category II;

475.888 (Unlawful Manufacture of Methamphetamine Within 1,000 Feet of School) — Category III;

475.890 (Unlawful Delivery of Methamphetamine) — Category II;

475.892 (Unlawful Delivery of Methamphetamine Within 1,000 Feet of School) — Category III;

475.894 (Unlawful Possession of Methamphetamine) — Category II;

475.904 (Unlawful Manufacture or Delivery of Controlled Substance Within 1,000 Feet of School) — Category III;

475.908 (Causing Another Person to Ingest a Controlled Substance) — Category III;

475.910 (Application of Controlled Substance to the Body of Another Person) — Category III;

475.914 (Prohibited Acts for Registrants: Deliver or Dispense Controlled Substance) — Category II;

475.962 (Distribution of Equipment, Solvent, Reagent or Precursor Substance with Intent to Facilitate Manufacture of Controlled Substances) — Category II;

475.967 (Possession of Precursor Substance With Intent to Manufacture Controlled Substance) — Category II;

475.977 (Possessing or Disposing of Methamphetamine Manufacturing Waste) — Category II;

811.182 (Criminal Driving While Suspended or Revoked) — Category II;

811.540 (Fleeing or Attempting to Elude Police Officer: Felony Only) — Category II;

811.705 (Failure to Perform Duties of a Driver to Person Injured) — Category II;

813.010 (DUII: Felony Only) — Category II.

Any crime that requires the fire service professional or instructor to register as a sex offender. “Attempt,” “Solicitation,” or “Conspiracy” to commit a crime listed in ORS 137.700 or in any other jurisdiction that, if committed in this state would constitute an attempt, solicitation, or conspiracy to commit a crime listed in 137.700 (and identified in OAR 259-009-0070(3)). Conviction of felony or Class A misdemeanor “Attempt”, “Solicitation” or “Conspiracy” to commit a crime identified in this rule as a discretionary disqualifier.

(d) If a fire service professional or instructor held certification on or before January 15, 2008 and applies for a new certification, the Department will proceed as follows:

(A) No action will be taken on a discretionary conviction that occurred prior to January 15, 2003.

(B) The Department will not initiate revocation proceedings based on a discretionary disqualifying conviction that occurred between January 15, 2003 and January 15, 2008.

(C) The Department may initiate denial of a new certification based on a discretionary disqualifying conviction that occurred between January 15, 2003 and January 15, 2008.

(e) If a fire service professional or instructor held certification on January 15, 2008 and applies for or obtains certification after that date, the Department may initiate denial or revocation of all certifications held based on a discretionary disqualifying conviction that occurred prior to January 15, 2008.

(f) If a fire service professional or instructor is convicted of a discretionary disqualifying crime on or after January 15, 2008, the Department may initiate a denial or revocation of all certification(s) upon learning of the conviction.

Initial Minimum Periods of Ineligibility

(5) Upon determination to proceed with the denial or revocation of a fire service professional’s or instructor’s certification based on discretionary disqualifying misconduct identified in section (4), the Fire Policy Committee and Board will determine an initial minimum period of ineligibility to apply for certification. The initial minimum period of ineligibility will range from 30 days to 7 (seven) years.

(a) In determining the initial minimum period of ineligibility for discretionary disqualifying misconduct listed in section (4) of this rule, the Fire Policy Committee and the Board will take into consideration any aggravating or mitigating factors subject to the provisions of section (7) of this rule.

(b) A person is not eligible to reapply for training or certification if the person had training or certification denied or revoked for mandatory grounds identified in section (3) of this rule.

(c) The initial minimum period of ineligibility will be included in any Final Order of the Department.

(d) Any subsequent eligibility to apply for certification will be determined by the Board, after a review by the Fire Policy Committee, subject to the provisions of section (9) of this rule.

Procedure for Denial or Revocation of a Certificate

(6) Scope of Revocation. Except as provided in (4) above, when the Department denies or revokes the certification of any fire service professional or instructor under the provisions of OAR 259-009-0070, the revocation will encompass all fire service certificates the Department has issued to that person.

(7) Denial and Revocation Procedure.

(a) Agency Initiated Review: When the entity utilizing a fire service professional or instructor requests that a fire service professional’s or instructor’s certification be revoked or denied, it must submit in writing to the Department the reason for the requested revocation or denial and all factual information supporting the request.

(b) Department Initiated Review: Upon receipt of factual information from any source, and pursuant to ORS 181.662, the Department may request that the fire service professional’s or instructor’s certification be revoked or denied.

(c) Department Staff Review: When the Department receives information, from any source, that a fire service professional or instructor may not meet the established standards for Oregon fire service professionals or instructors, the Department will review the request and the supporting factual information to determine if the request for denial or revocation meets statutory and administrative rule requirements.

(A) If the reason for the request does not meet the statutory and administrative rule requirements for denial or revocation the Department will notify the requestor.

(B) If the reason for the request does meet statutory and administrative rule requirements but is not supported by adequate factual information, the Department will request further information from the employer or conduct its own investigation of the matter.

(C) If the Department determines that a fire service professional or instructor may have engaged in discretionary disqualifying misconduct listed in subsection (4), the case may be presented to the Board, through the Fire Policy Committee.

(D) The Department will seek input from the affected fire service professional or instructor, allowing him or her to provide, in writing, information for the Fire Policy Committee and Board’s review.

(E) In misconduct cases in which there has been an arbitrator’s opinion related to the fire service professional’s or instructor’s employment, the Department will proceed as follows:

(i) If the arbitrator’s opinion finds that underlying facts supported the allegations of misconduct, the department will proceed as identified in paragraphs (A) through (D) of this subsection.

(ii) If the arbitrator has ordered employment reinstatement after a discharge for cause without a finding related to whether the misconduct occurred, the Department will proceed as identified in paragraphs (A) through (D) of this subsection.

(iii) If the arbitrator’s opinion finds that underlying facts did not support the allegation(s) of misconduct, the Department will proceed as identified in paragraph (A) of this subsection and administratively close the matter.

(d) Policy Committee and Board Review: In making a decision to authorize initiation of proceedings under subsection (e) of this rule, based on discretionary disqualifying misconduct, the Fire Policy Committee and Board will consider mitigating and aggravating circumstances including, but not limited to the following:

(A) When the misconduct occurred in relation to the fire service professional’s or instructor’s service as a fire service professional or instructor (i.e., before, during, after);

(B) Whether the fire service professional or instructor served time in prison/jail; and if so, the length of incarceration;

(C) Whether restitution was ordered, and if so, whether the fire service professional or instructor met all obligations;

(D) Whether the fire service professional or instructor has ever been on parole or probation. If so, the date on which the parole or probation period expired or is set to expire;

(E) Whether the fire service professional or instructor has more than one conviction and if so, over what period of time;

(F) Whether the misconduct involved domestic violence;

(G) Whether the fire service professional or instructor self-reported the misconduct;

(H) Whether the conduct involved dishonesty, fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation;

(I) Whether the conduct was prejudicial to the administration of justice;

(J) Whether the conduct adversely reflects on the fitness of the fire service professional or instructor to perform as a fire service professional or instructor;

(K) Whether the conduct makes the fire service professional or instructor otherwise unfit to render effective service because of the agency’s or public’s loss of confidence that the fire service professional or instructor possesses the core values integral to the fire service profession; and

(L) What the fire service professional’s or instructor’s physical or emotional condition was at the time of the conduct.

(e) Initiation of Proceedings: Upon determination by the policy committee that the reason for denial or revocation is supported by factual data meeting the statutory and administrative rule requirements, a contested case notice will be prepared and served on the fire service professional or instructor.

(f) Contested Case Notice:

(A) All contested case notices will be prepared in accordance with the applicable provisions of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedures adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.

(B) In discretionary cases heard by a policy committee, the contested case notice will be served on the fire service professional or instructor prior to Board review. If the Board disapproves the policy committee’s recommendation, the Department will withdraw the Contested Case Notice.

(g) Response Time:

(A) A party who has been served with a “Contested Case Notice of Intent to Deny Certification” has 60 days from the date of mailing or personal service of the notice in which to file a written request for a hearing with the Department.

(B) A party who has been served with a “Contested Case Notice of Intent to Revoke Certification” has 20 days from the date of mailing or personal service of the notice in which to file a written request for a hearing with the Department.

(h) Default Order: If a timely request for a hearing is not received, the Contested Case Notice will become a final order revoking or denying certification pursuant to OAR 137-003-0672.

(i) Hearing Request: If a timely request for a hearing is received, the Department will refer the matter to the Office of Administrative Hearings in accordance with OAR 137-003-0515.

(j) Proposed and Final Orders:

(A) In cases in which a hearing is requested, proposed orders, exceptions, and final orders will be issued pursuant to the applicable provision of the Attorney General’s Model Rules of Procedure adopted under OAR 259-005-0015.

(B) Department-proposed amendments to a proposed order issued by an Administrative Law Judge in a case that was originally heard by a policy committee must be considered and approved by the policy committee that originally reviewed the case before a final order can be issued.

(k) Stipulated Order Revoking Certification: The Department may enter a stipulated order revoking the certification of a fire service professional or instructor upon the person’s voluntary agreement to terminate an administrative proceeding to revoke a certification, or to relinquish a certification under the terms and conditions outlined in the stipulated order.

Appeals, Reapplication, and Eligibility Determinations

(8) Appeal Procedure. A fire service professional or instructor, aggrieved by the findings and Order of the Department may, as provided in ORS 183.480, file an appeal with the Court of Appeals from the final Order of the Department.

(9) Reapplication Process.

(a) Any fire service professional or instructor whose certification has been denied or revoked under section (4) of this rule for discretionary disqualifying misconduct may reapply for certification within the applicable timeframes described in (4) and (5) of this rule.

(b) Any fire service professional or instructor whose certification has been denied or revoked based on discretionary disqualifying misconduct may not reapply for certification until:

(A) The initial minimum period of ineligibility stated in an Order of the Department denying or revoking certification has been satisfied;

(i) If the initial period of ineligibility for the individual was for a period of less than the maximum period identified in section (4) of this rule, and the Board determines that an individual must remain ineligible to apply for certification, then the individual may not reapply for certification under the provisions of this rule until the maximum initial period of ineligibility identified in (5) of this rule has been satisfied.

(ii) If the individual has satisfied the maximum initial period of ineligibility and the Board determines that an individual must remain ineligible to apply for certification, then the individual may not submit any further requests for an eligibility determination, and the original denial or revocation remains permanent.

(B) A written request for an eligibility determination has been submitted to the Department and the Fire Policy Committee has recommended that a fire service professional’s or instructor’s eligibility to apply for fire service or instructor certification be restored and the Board has upheld the recommendation;

(i) A request for an eligibility determination should include documentation or information that supports the fire service professional’s or instructor’s request for eligibility to apply for certification.

(ii) In considering a request for an eligibility determination, the Fire Policy Committee and the Board may consider mitigating and aggravating circumstances identified in Section (7)(d) of this rule.

(iii) After reviewing a written request for an eligibility determination, the Board, through the Fire Policy Committee, may determine that the individual’s eligibility to apply for certification be restored if the criteria for certification have been met; or determine that the factors that originally resulted in denial or revocation have not been satisfactorily mitigated and the individual must remain ineligible to apply for certification.

(C) The fire service professional or instructor is employed or utilized by a fire service agency; and

(D) All requirements for certification have been met.

[ED. NOTE: Tables referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 181.640, 181.661, 181.662, 181.664 & 183.341
Stats. Implemented: ORS 181.640, 181.661, 181.662 & 181.664
Hist.: BPSST 22-2002, f. & cert. ef. 11-18-02; DPSST 3-2008, f. & cert. ef. 1-15-08; DPSST 7-2009, f. & cert. ef. 7-13-09; DPSST 7-2010, f. 7-15-10, cert. ef. 8-1-10; DPSST 1-2011, f. 2-24-11, cert. ef. 4-1-11; DPSST 11-2011, f. & cert. ef. 7-1-11; DPSST 19-2012, f. & cert. ef. 8-31-12

Notes
1.) This online version of the OREGON BULLETIN is provided for convenience of reference and enhanced access. The official, record copy of this publication is contained in the original Administrative Orders and Rulemaking Notices filed with the Secretary of State, Archives Division. Discrepancies, if any, are satisfied in favor of the original versions. Use the OAR Revision Cumulative Index found in the Oregon Bulletin to access a numerical list of rulemaking actions after November 15, 2011.

2.) Copyright 2012 Oregon Secretary of State: Terms and Conditions of Use

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